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Why do you use the Bible translation you use?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by 37818, Dec 27, 2021.

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  1. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Also known errors in the various TR texts also
     
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  2. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    From mss copies, on what basis do you typically accept one reading over another as the Original reading?
     
  3. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    The Kjvo seemed to be very reluctant to use the same standards and measures that they apply towards the translations
     
  4. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    How do you understand a known error in the TR is recognized?
     
  5. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    The older the manuscripts, the variants that seem to have a "harder" way of stating, like most likely not changed or corrupted, and also as a good attestment to it in historical textual evidences
     
  6. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    So inerrance is not part of the Biblical standard?
     
  7. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Are there any error or mistakes in it?
     
  8. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    In the TR, I believe so. There are different TR edtions for that matter, they all cannot be correct.
     
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  9. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    There is KJV highly preferred and KJV only. Most KJV only base their belief on handed down lore and not fact. I like the KJV. I have converted my KJV highly preferred Pastor to LSB. I simply pointed out to him that he had no clue what Elizabethan words and phrases mean and because of that he made a lot of errors. He agreed.
     
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  10. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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  11. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Think same can be said of the Critical and majority texts also
     
  12. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Textus receptus guy
     
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  13. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Which editions?
     
  14. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The LSB has for John 13:2, And during supper, the devil having already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, the son of Simon, to betray Him, . . .

    Which is neither the oldest reading (P66) nor the most difficult reading, see John 13:4 and John 13:26. The harder reading being "supper being ended."
     
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  15. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Some Greek texts are closer to what the originals were, but still think that one can use and have confidence in CT/MT/Bzt/TR Greek texts
     
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  16. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Which could be a passage where might be preferred to have gone other route
     
  17. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Personally I do not think so. Judas was at the institution of the remembrance, which in my understanding was done at the end of the supper, Luke 22:19-21.
     
  18. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Which would mean that a contradictory textual error would never be the inerrant word of God.
     
  19. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Which goes back to the question of choosing the best textual reading. On what basis? Of course it is by each variant reading.
     
    #99 37818, Dec 29, 2021
    Last edited: Dec 29, 2021
  20. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Both use the same Greek texts.
    Tbe JW Bible, John 1:18,
    No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him.
    The LSB, John 1:18,
    No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
     
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