• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Why do you use the Bible translation you use?

Status
Not open for further replies.

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
What are the specific standards and measures that are used to determine which manuscripts are to be considered "bad" and are those same exact standards/measures applied consistently and justly?
The Kjvo seemed to be very reluctant to use the same standards and measures that they apply towards the translations
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
From mss copies, on what basis do you typically accept one reading over another as the Original reading?
The older the manuscripts, the variants that seem to have a "harder" way of stating, like most likely not changed or corrupted, and also as a good attestment to it in historical textual evidences
 

Reynolds

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The Kjvo seemed to be very reluctant to use the same standards and measures that they apply towards the translations
There is KJV highly preferred and KJV only. Most KJV only base their belief on handed down lore and not fact. I like the KJV. I have converted my KJV highly preferred Pastor to LSB. I simply pointed out to him that he had no clue what Elizabethan words and phrases mean and because of that he made a lot of errors. He agreed.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
The older the manuscripts, the variants that seem to have a "harder" way of stating, like most likely not changed or corrupted, and also as a good attestment to it in historical textual evidences
The LSB has for John 13:2, And during supper, the devil having already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, the son of Simon, to betray Him, . . .

Which is neither the oldest reading (P66) nor the most difficult reading, see John 13:4 and John 13:26. The harder reading being "supper being ended."
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
Not when they follow the Original Text their not. The TR sometimes follows the wrong manuscrips.
Somtimes the Majority of all manuscripts may be mistaken.

I think the editors of critical text bibles made bad decisions when looking at variants. Unfortunately translators are told to use texts made by critical text people that make primative bad decisions and wrong choices.

Lets not blame the manuscripts. It's the editors that make the bad choices.
Some Greek texts are closer to what the originals were, but still think that one can use and have confidence in CT/MT/Bzt/TR Greek texts
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
The LSB has for John 13:2, And during supper, the devil having already put into the heart of Judas Iscariot, the son of Simon, to betray Him, . . .

Which is neither the oldest reading (P66) nor the most difficult reading, see John 13:4 and John 13:26. The harder reading being "supper being ended."
Which could be a passage where might be preferred to have gone other route
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Both use the same Greek texts.
Tbe JW Bible, John 1:18,
No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him.
The LSB, John 1:18,
No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top