Featured Whosoever - John 3:16

In Ephesians 1:4 we see the election of the saints. In Matthew 22 we see the removal the non-elect from the wedding feast. Therefore not everyone is chosen.

 

Your interpertation is pure eisegesis.

 

You literally read something into that is not there. Please explain how "in their lifetime" can be extrapolated from that verse...

 

Really. Where is ἐκλέγομαι ever translated "elect"? It is not. Now ἐκλεκτός used in 23 verses is only sometimes translated "elect." So in your eisegesis that makes ἐκλέγομαι to mean "elect." Is that not what you are defending?

 

What verse?

 

You do not know what you are talking about. You think you do.

 

The irrational want to have ἐκλέγομαι in Ephesians 1:4 to mean the same as ἐκλεκτός. And there is no reasoning with the irrational.

 

The lack of rational thought is all yours. You are attempting to create a distinction that God never makes. You are attempting to create your theology from empty air.

 

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A false claim. You want ἐκλέγομαι in Ephesians 1:4 to mean ἐκλεκτός.

 

No.

Ephesians 1 is not the same as Matthew 22.

God is making two different points, but you cannot see it.
Yet chosen and elect are still synonyms.

 

Austin that is just what we have been telling all along whoever believes, you know hear the gospel believes the gospel, will be saved. Glad to see that you are finally coming around and trusting what the bible says.

 

Actually what Ephesians 1:3-4 is talking about is that those that are in Christ Jesus will experience the spiritual blessings. And the only way to be "in Christ" is through faith. So you could not be in Christ before creation or even the day before you trusted in Christ. That is just your failed philosophy talking.

 

No, not even close.

*Ephesians 1:3-6*

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places, even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him. In love he predestined us for adoption as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, to the praise of his glorious grace, with which he has blessed us in the Beloved.

 

I think you need to explain just why you think they are used differently, and produce some evidence for your belief.

 

ἐκλέγομαι is a verb; ἐκλεκτός is a noun, specifically, a participle. In the KJV, ἐκλέγομαι is never translated as to 'elect,' but rather, to 'choose.' However, the two terms a pretty much synonymous in English. When you have a Presidential election, you go to choose a new President, or at least, to make your choice for one.
The word is used for choosing or electing in time (eg. Luke 6:13) and also for choosing or electing in eternity (eg. Ephesians 1:4)

ἐκλεκτός is translated in the KJV an 'elect' (as a noun)16 times and as 'chosen' 7 times, I can see nowhere that ἐκλεκτός could not be translated a 'chosen' or chosen one(s).

 

Silverhair, Whoever believes is the one who hears Jesus choose them by calling their name and raising them from death to life. This is what I have been telling you. Whoever hears, will believe. Whoever remains dead, will not hear, nor will they believe. You are so close to coming around and believing what the Bible says.
"But God..."

 

I had explicitly.

 

In all 23 verses it is always a modifier of noun. And in 16 of the verses translated "elect" in the translation I use.

And so never translated "election" to mean someone being elect.
Mark 13:20 is an excellent find. It shows that the elect were previously chosen in agreement with Ephesians 1:4, as I understand this.

 

Were you "in Christ" before you believed?

 

Matthew 24L22. 'For the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.' See also vs. 24 & 31, the parallel verses in Mark; Luke 18:2; Romans 8:33; Colossians 3:12; 2 Timothy 2:10; Titus 1:1. There is no noun to be modified in any of these verses, though I suppose you can make the addition of 'people' if you want, though it's not in the text. In fairness, in 1 Timothy 5:21; 1 Peter 1:2; 2:6; 2 John 1, 13, ἐκλεκτός is used as an adjective. My mistake.

There is another word used 6 times in the NT which is translated 'election,' ekloge. According to Bagster's Analytical Greek Lexicon, it means, 'the aggregate of those who are chosen, the elect' (Romans 11:7)..

Well of course the elect were previously chosen! Otherwise they wouldn't be elect, would they? According to Ephesians 1:4, they were chosen in Christ before the foundation of the world.

And how exactly could ἐκλέγομαι be translated as 'election'? It's a verb.

I'm really not sure what point you are trying to make, and where exactly we disagree.