In all 23 verses it is always a modifier of noun. And in 16 of the verses translated "elect" in the translation I use.
Matthew 24L22.
'For the elect's sake those days shall be shortened.' See also vs. 24 & 31, the parallel verses in Mark; Luke 18:2; Romans 8:33; Colossians 3:12; 2 Timothy 2:10; Titus 1:1. There is no noun to be modified in any of these verses, though I suppose you can make the addition of 'people' if you want, though it's not in the text. In fairness, in 1 Timothy 5:21; 1 Peter 1:2; 2:6; 2 John 1, 13, ἐκλεκτός is used as an adjective. My mistake.
And so never translated "election" to mean someone being elect.
There is another word used 6 times in the NT which is translated 'election,'
ekloge. According to Bagster's Analytical Greek Lexicon, it means, 'the aggregate of those who are chosen, the elect' (Romans 11:7)..
Mark 13:20 is an excellent find. It shows that the elect were previously chosen in agreement with Ephesians 1:4, as I understand this.

Well of course the elect were previously chosen! Otherwise they wouldn't be elect, would they? According to Ephesians 1:4, they were chosen in Christ before the foundation of the world.
And how exactly could ἐκλέγομαι be translated as 'election'? It's a verb.
I'm really not sure what point you are trying to make, and where exactly we disagree.
