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what is wrong with your "theology", is that you have God send His Gospel Message for the salvation of ALL sinners, without exception; but has made sure that those who are not predetermined by Him to salvation, He has left unable to respond, as He has not given them the same "grace". This is a...

that is not what we are talking about. It is whether ALL who have the Gospel preached to them, have the "ability" given by the Holy Spirit by His convicting, to either accept or reject the Gospel of salvation. If God "regenerates" the elect, and thereby enabling them to accept the Gospel, then...

you can't have it both ways! If, as you say, that it is God Who "enables" the elect to respond to His Call; then it can only be, that He does not do the same for those who are non-elect. In which case they are not really "rejecting" Jesus, nor be accountable, as they have not been given any...

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Or, as the best text has it, "repentance for remission of sins" that said. The fact remains, that some believe that God regenerates the hearts of the elect before they can respond to the Gospel call, thereby enabling them to believe the Gospel and be saved. If, this is something only for the...

Not so. A person that is not a believer is not necessary a follower of the devil! They are blind by the devil to stop them believing the Gospel and being saved. This cannot be their fault, as it is outside of their power. However, when they hear the Gospel Message, the Holy Spirit convicts them...

If God "enables" only His elect to receive the Gospel and be saved, then what is the purpose in preaching the same Gospel to the non-elect, seeing that God know full well that they can NEVER accept it, as He is not enabled them to? This makes God into a deceiver!

I am speaking of the God-given ability to respond to His call to salvation, which is only possible with the pre-convicting of God the Holy Spirit.

always glad to be reminded! :D. The question that I have for you Mr Cassidy, what exactly is this CALL? Is it to REPENTANCE and FAITH (Mark 1:15)?

FREE WILL

in John chapter 5, Jesus was in conversation with some Jews who wanted to murder Him. see verses 16-18. In verse 19 we read, "So Jesus said to them...", and the rest of the chapter is to these Jews. In verses 24-25, Jesus tells these same Jews, "Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word...

"Propitiation", is the choice of some English versions of the Bible, following the Latin Vulgate. However, "sin-offering" is what the Greek means as used in the LXX and defined by the Greek lexicon of Liddell and Scott.

more theology...please give Scripture instead!

now, if the Bible says, "especially", why would you change that to "only". Does the Bible affect your theology?

We have to choose the word that the original language allows, and it seems best from LXX use of the Hebrew, that "sin-offering" is the term. I am open to sensible suggestions though

No you speak in riddles! God has provided the means for ALL sinners, but only the elect will be saved, because God will only "call" the elect? In which case, God is insincere with the non-elect!

yes, Calvinism!

Well, that is YOUR personal theology. We are more interested in what the Bible actually teaches. 1 john 2:2 is very clear that there is NO "limit" on Jesus' saving only the "elect".

check #58

Yes, "sin-offering" is a far better and more Biblical term to use.