It still stands as God's command.
How merciful is that! actually, its downright confusing & creates animosity amongst the brethren & as we know "For God is not a God of confusion but of peace."
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It still stands as God's command.
How merciful is that! actually, its downright confusing & creates animosity amongst the brethren & as we know "For God is not a God of confusion but of peace."
If we want to discuss the degree of mercifulness, then which of these is more merciful:
a. God commands all people to repent of their sins and provides them an opportunity, in some form or fashion, to come before the throne of grace and seek His mercy, through the death, burial, resurrection, and ascension of Jesus Christ, who now sits at the right hand of the Father making intercession for us...
or
b. God, the creator of all peoples, has already picked and chosen and made a final decision on who will be redeemed and who will suffer eternal punishment, and that same God forces those already chosen to repent by "regenerating" them, but He leaves the others to a life of wickedness and despair and never even gives them a chance to repent.
In my opinion, and from my study, one of those scenarios is Biblical and the other is not. One of those scenarios actually bears out what scripture says. The other requires a strained interpretation of scripture to follow. One of those scenarios negates several well-known verse of scripture. The other brings those verse to life in ways that ought to excite Christians.
But that's just me.
The problem is that your alternatives are false and thus your conclusions are false. Your alternatives do not rightly represent the truth which is:
1. God tests humanities obedience through a chosen representative wherein all potential humanity actually exists and actually act as one unfallen human nature through one man - Adam (Rom. 5:12,15-19). This man has the perfect environment to make such a choice. This man has the perfect nature (sinlessness) to make that choice. Yet the whole human nature with all of its potential in this one representative man acts to willfully choose to disobey God. Would God be perfectly just "in the day" they sinned to bring upon them instantly the full penalty of death - the eternal wrath of God in hell? If so, would not that include the whole of human nature with all of its potential diversity manifested in reproduction after its own kind? Therefore, would not God have been perfectly just to condemn the whole human race to hell?
2. Election assumes an already condemned state because it is election "UNTO" salvation,[2 Thes. 2:13) and "salvation" presumes the fall into sin already. Hence, election is wholly of God's grace (Rom. 11:5-6) and does not require God to save any justly condemned sinners. God is just in allowing sinners to go right on their way in rebellion and only merciful and gracious if He chooses to save any sinner. Hence, "not by works of righteousness which we have done but ACCORDING TO HIS MERCY he saved us" (Tit. 3:5) when in fact he could have justly refused to save any of mankind but instantly condemned the whole race upon the day humanity acted in rebellion through their perfect representative - Adam.
3. God chose another representative man - Christ. To act in behalf of the elect, which he gave according to His purpose OF GRACE unto Christ (2 Tim. 1:7)to save before the foundation of the world (Jn. 6:38-39; Eph. 1:4). Christ another sinless man, did always those things that please the Father and then willing laid down his own life for "his sheep" to redeem them from sin and therefore will not lose one of them (Jn. 6:38-39). The elect are no more worthy of salvation than the non-elect but salvation is according to God's purpose of grace alone (Rom. 9:11).
4. The gospel is preached to all men everywhere because gospel preachers do not know who are and who are not the elect, AND because it is God's chosen means to call out His people through the preaching of the Gospel as He has chosen to exercise His regenerative power through the Word when it comes to the elect (1 Thes. 1:4-5) and the response of repentance and faith in the gospel is how the elect are made known.
5. Therefore, nothing prevents the worst sinner from coming to Christ and being saved except his own fallen depraved nature that willingly chooses to resist God (Rom. 8:7) AND nothing can be credited for the salvation of the elect solely but God's purpose of grace, as the elect would also freely of their own will have continued in willful rebellion against God just as the non-elect as both equally were sons of Adam's fallen nature, and equally deserving of instanteous destruction in hell "in the day" Adam and Eve sinned. Hence, all equally and justly deserve hell, and the salvation of any is solely an act of distinguishing grace undeserved but justly based upon the redemptive work of their representative.
So the truth is that ALL EQUALLY deserve hell and NONE deserve salvation. Hence, that frees God to act solely by justice or by grace without obligating him to save anyone or condemning him to save whom He wills.
[/QUOTE]The problem is that your alternatives are false and thus your conclusions are false. Your alternatives do not rightly represent the truth which is:
1. God tests humanities obedience through a chosen representative wherein all potential humanity actually exists and actually act as one unfallen human nature through one man - Adam (Rom. 5:12,15-19). This man has the perfect environment to make such a choice. This man has the perfect nature (sinlessness) to make that choice. Yet the whole human nature with all of its potential in this one representative man acts to willfully choose to disobey God. Would God be perfectly just "in the day" they sinned to bring upon them instantly the full penalty of death - the eternal wrath of God in hell? If so, would not that include the whole of human nature with all of its potential diversity manifested in reproduction after its own kind? Therefore, would not God have been perfectly just to condemn the whole human race to hell?
2. Election assumes an already condemned state because it is election "UNTO" salvation,[2 Thes. 2:13) and "salvation" presumes the fall into sin already. Hence, election is wholly of God's grace (Rom. 11:5-6) and does not require God to save any justly condemned sinners. God is just in allowing sinners to go right on their way in rebellion and only merciful and gracious if He chooses to save any sinner. Hence, "not by works of righteousness which we have done but ACCORDING TO HIS MERCY he saved us" (Tit. 3:5) when in fact he could have justly refused to save any of mankind but instantly condemned the whole race upon the day humanity acted in rebellion through their perfect representative - Adam.
3. God chose another representative man - Christ. To act in behalf of the elect, which he gave according to His purpose OF GRACE unto Christ (2 Tim. 1:7)to save before the foundation of the world (Jn. 6:38-39; Eph. 1:4). Christ another sinless man, did always those things that please the Father and then willing laid down his own life for "his sheep" to redeem them from sin and therefore will not lose one of them (Jn. 6:38-39). The elect are no more worthy of salvation than the non-elect but salvation is according to God's purpose of grace alone (Rom. 9:11).
4. The gospel is preached to all men everywhere because gospel preachers do not know who are and who are not the elect, AND because it is God's chosen means to call out His people through the preaching of the Gospel as He has chosen to exercise His regenerative power through the Word when it comes to the elect (1 Thes. 1:4-5) and the response of repentance and faith in the gospel is how the elect are made known.
5. Therefore, nothing prevents the worst sinner from coming to Christ and being saved except his own fallen depraved nature that willingly chooses to resist God (Rom. 8:7) AND nothing can be credited for the salvation of the elect solely but God's purpose of grace, as the elect would also freely of their own will have continued in willful rebellion against God just as the non-elect as both equally were sons of Adam's fallen nature, and equally deserving of instanteous destruction in hell "in the day" Adam and Eve sinned. Hence, all equally and justly deserve hell, and the salvation of any is solely an act of distinguishing grace undeserved but justly based upon the redemptive work of their representative.
So the truth is that ALL EQUALLY deserve hell and NONE deserve salvation. Hence, that frees God to act solely by justice or by grace and both glorify him without obligating him to save anyone or condemning him to save whom He wills. The non-elect have no one to blame but their own depraved choice to resist, and the elect have no one to praise but the free grace of God, and there testimony is "there go I but by the grace of God."
If we want to discuss the degree of mercifulness, then which of these is more merciful:
a. God commands all people to repent of their sins and provides them an opportunity, in some form or fashion, to come before the throne of grace and seek His mercy, through the death, burial, resurrection, and ascension of Jesus Christ, who now sits at the right hand of the Father making intercession for us...
or
b. God, the creator of all peoples, has already picked and chosen and made a final decision on who will be redeemed and who will suffer eternal punishment, and that same God forces those already chosen to repent by "regenerating" them, but He leaves the others to a life of wickedness and despair and never even gives them a chance to repent.
In my opinion, and from my study, one of those scenarios is Biblical and the other is not. One of those scenarios actually bears out what scripture says. The other requires a strained interpretation of scripture to follow. One of those scenarios negates several well-known verse of scripture. The other brings those verse to life in ways that ought to excite Christians.
But that's just me.
The Biblicist
No, only some of them were. And you are not God who decides who goes to Hell and who doesn't. That is the issue here.
Hey, PreachT.
Hope you don't mind if I cut in.
EWF is perfectly capable of answering but I couldn't resist this especially since this might be the subject of my message on Sunday.
Well, now, think about it for a minute.
To say that God provides men with an opportunity to come before the throne of grace is indeed indicative of a loving and merciful God. But, really, to whom was this opportunity extended ?
Perhaps you will point to the "if you do this, then I will do this, if you don't then I will do this" scriptures of the first 5 books of Moses, particularly those in Exodus and Deuteronomy ?
But what about the fact that the addressees were descendants of Abraham, a people whom God created for Himself ?
And that the law was given by God to Moses for Israel, and not to the tribes around them ? and the fact that when God sprung Israel out of Egypt (a picture of sin), He rescued only Israel, and not those outside of Israel who might have wanted to come since they were generous enough to hand over precious jewels and treasures to Israel ?
Or the letter of Peter to the "strangers scattered abroad" wherein he says God is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance ? (2 Peter 3:9) ?
Well, first off, look at the addressees : " ...to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:" (2 Peter 1:1)
From then on to chapter 3, verse 9 one can count numbers of "you, yours, and us'es as well as their many variants all pointing to Peter talking about him AND his addressees or just the addressees and when he begins that 3rd chapter, wow, he's really kicking it as he reminds his addressees (This second epistle, beloved, I now write unto you; in both which I stir up your pure minds by way of remembrance 2Peter3:1) to be patient for the coming of the Lord because.....and you know the rest, PreachT.
so, even this shows exclusivity of the Lord. It demonstrates His love and mercy to those whom He loves, and it certainly is not all mankind.
Or even John 1:12 which one poster quoted to another the other day in another thread ? A sentence which taken out from its context appears to say that anyone of mankind who receives him has the opportunity to become a son of God, but when read in context with the next verse shows that those who received Christ and were given the power to become sons of God were already regenerated ?
Fact is, it's not just you, brother.
There are a lot on this board with the same view.
But Scripture is Scripture.
As much as we want God to be "like us", in terms of how we love, or look at fellow human beings, He is just not like us.
(Isaiah 55:8)
How can man be accountable for choosing to disobey God if he does not have the ability to choose to obey God?
So the only thing keeping a sinner from coming to God for salvation is their own depraved nature, and the only thing that can bring a sinner to God is God's grace? Yet that doesn't hold water. If it requires God's grace and God's will to regenerate someone, then you can't hold only the person accountable for not coming to God, because obviously God did not choose to regenerate that person.
First you should read the two replys from Biblicist and PYB more carefully.The scripture does not say what you say here......pay attention to the whole section..God is long suffering ...TO-USWARD...not willing that any perish.So when the scripture says God is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance, it does not, in fact, mean "any" and "all?"
.And there's the rub
We both read the same scripture, and we both see things differently.
Such differences of opinion can lead us to quickly denounce our brother as "false" or as a "heretic," when it's often nothing more than we interpret some verse of scripture differently than they do.
There is no strawman here Icon. It seems, rather, that you are unwilling to honestly deal with Scripture.DHK
Answering your errors is like a full time job:thumbsup:
In the larger scheme of things John 8:44 was spoken to all the lost, not just the Pharisees. In its immediate context he was speaking to the Pharisees (among whom was Saul, Nicodemus, and Joseph of Arimathea--all part of the Sanhedrin). Were they also all part of the "non-elect." Your statement is too judgmental and is in error. You don't have the Biblical facts to make such a statement.
"These are non elect being sent to hell."
Once again you demonstrate no understanding of the biblical doctrine of election as revealed in scripture. Saul....was never part of the "non elect"
His election was before the world was created.
Jesus is God DHK!....[let me answer like you do to us:laugh:]
Do you deny Jesus is God? Are you saying that Jesus did not know if these men were children of the devil? If you deny Jesus is God, you do not have the Father either....All heretics deny Jesus is God you know....you better be careful what you post DHK...we all believe Jesus is God:wavey: Do you?
Of course there is no strawman here.....no...just seems as if you were saying this......That is what you do most of the time....
First you should read the two replys from Biblicist and PYB more carefully.The scripture does not say what you say here......pay attention to the whole section..God is long suffering ...TO-USWARD...not willing that any perish.
yes...you only used part of the verse...the letter was written to the elect.
because you ignore the ...to usward:thumbs: God is very willing that many perish...MT 7;21-24
Or we skip over the parts of the verse that will explain it.:thumbs:
because you ignore the ...to usward:thumbs: God is very willing that many perish...MT 7;21-24
There is no wrinkles in Gods brow or His hair has not turned white or is He sad at any time because of the actions of man. Job 35:5-8 Look unto the heavens and see; and behold the clouds which are higher than thou. If thou sinneth, what doest thou against him ? or if thy transgressions be multiplied, what doest thou to him ? If thou be righteous, what givest thou him ? or what receiveth he of thine hand ? Thy wickedness may hurt a man as thou art; and thy righteousness may profit the son of man. Job 22:2-4 Can a man be profitable to God, as he that is wise may be profitable to himself ? Is it any pleasure to the Almighty, that thou art righteous ? or is it gain to him that thou makest thy ways perfect ? Will he reprove thee for fear of thee ? will he enter with thee into judgment ? If God is sad it would be because of lack of power to control. If God has no power to control then he himself is controlled by a outside force, hence the outside force has become god.Just as an aside, Icon...but to show you the differences we have in opinion over the reading...
When I read your reply to me, I couldn't help but get the sense that you read Matthew 7:21-24 and see God as excited and joyful over the destruction of those people. (perhaps it's the "thumbs"-guy right before it the gives off that vibe)
When I read Matthew 7:21-24, I can't help but read it as though God is saddened by the destruction of those who thought they were doing right, even though they never knew Him. Sure, not everyone who claims the name of the Lord is saved, we can all admit that as fact. But I truly believe that some of the people cast into damnation at judgment will believe they were in the right all along, right up until God turns them away.
And I do believe God is saddened by that. But, as we've established, apparently I believe very differently from a lot of people around here.
Just as an aside, Icon...but to show you the differences we have in opinion over the reading...
When I read your reply to me, I couldn't help but get the sense that you read Matthew 7:21-24 and see God as excited and joyful over the destruction of those people. (perhaps it's the "thumbs"-guy right before it the gives off that vibe)
When I read Matthew 7:21-24, I can't help but read it as though God is saddened by the destruction of those who thought they were doing right, even though they never knew Him.
Sure, not everyone who claims the name of the Lord is saved, we can all admit that as fact.
exactly....But I truly believe that some of the people cast into damnation at judgment will believe they were in the right all along, right up until God turns them away.
And I do believe God is saddened by that.
But, as we've established, apparently I believe very differently from a lot of people around here. :
Okay, Icon, two things:
1. Who is making the call that the "us-ward" signifies the Elect?
That, too, requires interpolation that, while you say it applies to the Elect, I can just as easily say that it applies to all of Peter's readers (hey, I'm a poet and didn't know it :smilewinkgrin Peter notes that the epistle is written to the "beloved." Are only our fellow believers counted among the "beloved?"
apologies, Icon. From now on I'll only reference the entire verse...though, seeing as the division into chapters and verses didn't even begin until after 1200 AD, if we want "original meaning" I suppose we'll all have to begin quoting the entire book.
PreachTony [QUOTE said:2. If they are Elect, then how could they perish?
I was under the impression that the Elect were chosen of God from before the foundation of the world, and, to hear and read certain Calvinists, the Elect have no choice but to be redeemed, therefore they cannot perish. So it then becomes a useless sentence for Peter to write that none should perish if the group he's talking to lacks the ability to "perish."
.
The problem is that your alternatives are false and thus your conclusions are false. Your alternatives do not rightly represent the truth which is:
1. God tests humanities obedience through a chosen representative wherein all potential humanity actually exists and actually act as one unfallen human nature through one man - Adam (Rom. 5:12,15-19). This man has the perfect environment to make such a choice. This man has the perfect nature (sinlessness) to make that choice. Yet the whole human nature with all of its potential in this one representative man acts to willfully choose to disobey God. Would God be perfectly just "in the day" they sinned to bring upon them instantly the full penalty of death - the eternal wrath of God in hell? If so, would not that include the whole of human nature with all of its potential diversity manifested in reproduction after its own kind? Therefore, would not God have been perfectly just to condemn the whole human race to hell?
2. Election assumes an already condemned state because it is election "UNTO" salvation,[2 Thes. 2:13) and "salvation" presumes the fall into sin already. Hence, election is wholly of God's grace (Rom. 11:5-6) and does not require God to save any justly condemned sinners. God is just in allowing sinners to go right on their way in rebellion and only merciful and gracious if He chooses to save any sinner. Hence, "not by works of righteousness which we have done but ACCORDING TO HIS MERCY he saved us" (Tit. 3:5) when in fact he could have justly refused to save any of mankind but instantly condemned the whole race upon the day humanity acted in rebellion through their perfect representative - Adam.
3. God chose another representative man - Christ. To act in behalf of the elect, which he gave according to His purpose OF GRACE unto Christ (2 Tim. 1:7)to save before the foundation of the world (Jn. 6:38-39; Eph. 1:4). Christ another sinless man, did always those things that please the Father and then willing laid down his own life for "his sheep" to redeem them from sin and therefore will not lose one of them (Jn. 6:38-39). The elect are no more worthy of salvation than the non-elect but salvation is according to God's purpose of grace alone (Rom. 9:11).
4. The gospel is preached to all men everywhere because gospel preachers do not know who are and who are not the elect, AND because it is God's chosen means to call out His people through the preaching of the Gospel as He has chosen to exercise His regenerative power through the Word when it comes to the elect (1 Thes. 1:4-5) and the response of repentance and faith in the gospel is how the elect are made known.
5. Therefore, nothing prevents the worst sinner from coming to Christ and being saved except his own fallen depraved nature that willingly chooses to resist God (Rom. 8:7) AND nothing can be credited for the salvation of the elect solely but God's purpose of grace, as the elect would also freely of their own will have continued in willful rebellion against God just as the non-elect as both equally were sons of Adam's fallen nature, and equally deserving of instanteous destruction in hell "in the day" Adam and Eve sinned. Hence, all equally and justly deserve hell, and the salvation of any is solely an act of distinguishing grace undeserved but justly based upon the redemptive work of their representative.
So the truth is that ALL EQUALLY deserve hell and NONE deserve salvation. Hence, that frees God to act solely by justice or by grace and both glorify him without obligating him to save anyone or condemning him to save whom He wills. The non-elect have no one to blame but their own depraved choice to resist, and the elect have no one to praise but the free grace of God, and there testimony is "there go I but by the grace of God."