Christ payment was for all mankind

[Martin Marprelate]

And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world. (NKJV)

and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the whole world. (NASB)

Folks, as you can see the two translations are identical when you delete the italicized words added to the text for clarity. Obviously no addition was needed.

No addition was needed but it was nonetheless inserted, and it forces an interpretation that is not necessarily correct.

Bottom line, all this discussion about the translations and the Greek are a diversion, an obfuscation

.
I disagree. I think it's important.

The real issue which Martin seeks to avoid is his mistaken view that when Christ died, the past present and future sins of the supposedly chosen before the foundation elect individuals were set aside.

If that were my view, it would be faulty. That is a species of hyper-Calvinism.

However this view would mean future believers when conceived would not be sinners, nor children of wrath. But the Bible says they are. Therefore the Calvinist view is unbiblical.

As I say, that is not my view. Why not ask me what my views are instead of telling me?

 

[revmwc]

It is accurate, but....

And He Propitiation is about the misses of us not about the our more yet only but about whole of the system (world)

It's perfectly fine, and supports my position, but it's unintelligible. See my post to Van for the point I am making.

And He Propitiation is about the misses of us not about the our more yet only but about whole of the system (world)

Kocmoy, Kosmou, Kosmou

Let's see if we can pull it together.

And He that is Christ Propitiation that is appeasement

So we have Christ is the appeasement which is about the misses that is sin of us not about the our more yet only but about the whole world.

So what we have, Christ is the appeasement for the sins of us (believers) not about our only but about the whole world.

So what is the ours only? What does that mean? What does ours mean? Well the subject of course is that Christ is the Propitiation that is Appeasement the Appeasement for what? The Appeasement for sin not ours only but for the whole world just like ours!

So the ours must mean our sin so not for our sin only but fir the whole entire world that would be mankind.

 

[DHK]

(KJV) And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

(ASV) and he is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the whole world.

(EMTV) And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only concerning ours, but also concerning those of the whole world.

(ESV) He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

(Geneva) And he is the reconciliation for our sinnes: and not for ours onely, but also for the sinnes of the whole world.

Translation after translation says the same thing--that Christ made an atonement not for our sins only but for those of the whole world. In no way can this be construed to be the sins of the elect. That has to be read into the text. It would be a matter of eisegesis.

The meaning is simply that Christ satisfied the legal demands of God with the payment of His sacrificial blood on the cross. That was the price--the price that he paid for the penalty of our sins and the sins of the whole world: his blood. That is what satisfied the legal demands of God. Thus he made a propitiation for our sins.
Was it enough? His blood was enough to satisfy God to pay for the sins of all the world. That does not mean all the world will be saved, it simply means it is sufficient enough for all the world to be saved had they wanted to be saved. It is efficacious only for them who believe on Him. Salvation is by faith. The penalty was paid. Now the pardon must be received. Only a fool would reject it, but the world is full of fools.
"The fool has said in his heart, there is no god."

 

[Rippon]

(KJV) And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

(ASV) and he is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the whole world.

(EMTV) And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only concerning ours, but also concerning those of the whole world.

(ESV) He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

(Geneva) And he is the reconciliation for our sinnes: and not for ours onely, but also for the sinnes of the whole world.

Translation after translation says the same thing--that Christ made an atonement not for our sins only but for those of the whole world. In no way can this be construed to be the sins of the elect. That has to be read into the text. It would be a matter of eisegesis.

You're wrong. The same author of 1 John penned the Gospel that bears his name. Look at 11:51b-52:
"Jesus would die for the Jewish nation, and not only for that nation but also for the scattered children of God, to bring them together and make them one."

The very same author wrote the book of Revelation. See 5:9b :
"with your blood you purchased for God persons from every tribe and people and nation."

See 17:8b :"The inhabitants of the earth whose names have not been written in the book of life from the creation of the world."

These people are the elect of God. They and they only are redeemed of the Lord.

Gaze at 1 Peter 1:1 :
"To God's elect, strangers in the world, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia and Bithynia"

it simply means it is sufficient enough for all the world to be saved had they wanted to be saved.

Don't be simple-minded. It is beyond anything biblical for you to say the words "had they wanted to be saved."

No one apart from the Divine intervention of the Lord "wants" to be saved. It is not a matter of choosing to be wise. For one to be savingly united to the Lord does not depend on one's keen perception and ability. It depends on God's mercy. That ought to remind you of Romans 9:16:
"It does not, therefore, depend on human desire or effort, but on God's mercy."

The Lord determines who shall receive his mercy and who will not.

Salvation is by faith.

Faith that the Lord gives his own.

The penalty was paid. Now the pardon must be received. Only a fool would reject it, but the world is full of fools.

Unless the Lord opens spiritual eyes, nobody would be saved. He is the One to cause us to be born from above. He chooses to give certain ones spiritual birth. He hardens the rest.

Remember that the children of God are "not born of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband's will, but born of God." (John 1:13)

It is all due to God --not to our pat-on-the-back "decision all on my own" type of nonsense. He made his light to shine in our hearts. (2 Cor. 4:6) I know that just riles the free-will enthusiasts --but the Lord causes us to be His --not us!

 

[kyredneck]

...It is all due to God --not to our pat-on-the-back "decision all on my own" type of nonsense....

29 that no flesh should glory before God.
30 But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who was made unto us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption:
31 that, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord. 1 Cor 1

 

[Van]

WRONG!

We would hold that due to the death of Jesus indeed paying in full the sin debt of all those whom God intended to get saved by Him, that God thus chose them while yet as sinners to receive eternal life in Christ!

While we were yet sinners, Jesus died for us, the godly for the ungodly, correct?

1) No verse or passage says Jesus paid in full the sin debt of those individuals chosen before the foundation of the world. What scripture actually says is Jesus laid down His life as a ransom for all, that He tasted death for everyone, that He is the propitiation or means of salvation for the whole world.

2) Jesus had died for you before you were conceived in iniquity. If your sins had been propitiated, then you would not have formerly walked in your transgressions and sins. We would not have been the same as the rest. But we were, Ephesians 2:1-3

 

[Van]

As I say, that is not my view. Why not ask me what my views are instead of telling me?

My objection is not with your views, whatever they are, but with Calvinism, the TULI of the Tulip. Those are the views that are unbiblical.
1) Matthew 23:13 demonstrates that unregenerate men can be entering the kingdom of heaven, thus seeking God. Therefore the "T" of the Tulip is mistaken doctrine.
2) 2 Thessalonians 2:13 demonstrates that God chooses individuals for salvation through faith in the truth, thus a conditional election. Therefore the "U" of the Tulip is mistaken doctrine.
3) 1 John 2:2 demonstrates Jesus is the propitiation or means of salvation for the whole world, thus Limited Atonement as defined by Calvinism, is mistaken doctrine.
4) Matthew 23:13 demonstrates that men entering the kingdom of heaven were blocked, thus the doctrine of irresistible grace is mistaken.

 

[Yeshua1]

1) No verse or passage says Jesus paid in full the sin debt of those individuals chosen before the foundation of the world. What scripture actually says is Jesus laid down His life as a ransom for all, that He tasted death for everyone, that He is the propitiation or means of salvation for the whole world.

2) Jesus had died for you before you were conceived in iniquity. If your sins had been propitiated, then you would not have formerly walked in your transgressions and sins. We would not have been the same as the rest. But we were, Ephesians 2:1-3

So jesus dud not pay our sin debt in full, even though the Bible states that he is our mercy seat before the father?

Having my sins already paid for/propiated to the father though is NOT same thing as me now being saved and now born again though!

 

[Yeshua1]

(KJV) And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

(ASV) and he is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the whole world.

(EMTV) And He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only concerning ours, but also concerning those of the whole world.

(ESV) He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

(Geneva) And he is the reconciliation for our sinnes: and not for ours onely, but also for the sinnes of the whole world.

Translation after translation says the same thing--that Christ made an atonement not for our sins only but for those of the whole world. In no way can this be construed to be the sins of the elect. That has to be read into the text. It would be a matter of eisegesis.

The meaning is simply that Christ satisfied the legal demands of God with the payment of His sacrificial blood on the cross. That was the price--the price that he paid for the penalty of our sins and the sins of the whole world: his blood. That is what satisfied the legal demands of God. Thus he made a propitiation for our sins.
Was it enough? His blood was enough to satisfy God to pay for the sins of all the world. That does not mean all the world will be saved, it simply means it is sufficient enough for all the world to be saved had they wanted to be saved. It is efficacious only for them who believe on Him. Salvation is by faith. The penalty was paid. Now the pardon must be received. Only a fool would reject it, but the world is full of fools.
"The fool has said in his heart, there is no god."

ALL of us if left to own desires and will though would say that same thing, as we are by nature children of wrath, at war against God, and would not seek him to get saved!

 

[DHK]

ALL of us if left to own desires and will though would say that same thing, as we are by nature children of wrath, at war against God, and would not seek him to get saved!

It is certain that Cornelius sought him.
And a careful study of the Scriptures will show that there is no good reason not to believe that initially Abraham, David or Moses did not originally seek after God. Why wouldn't they? There is nothing to indicate they didn't; just your theology.

 

[Revmitchell]

It is certain that Cornelius sought him.
And a careful study of the Scriptures will show that there is no good reason not to believe that initially Abraham, David or Moses did not originally seek after God. Why wouldn't they? There is nothing to indicate they didn't; just your theology.

Are you trying to make an argument from silence?

 

[DHK]

You're wrong. Faith that the Lord gives his own.

There is not a Scripture in the NT that states that God gives faith to the unregenerate, not one, and yet you keep parroting this unbiblical error.

I simply explained 1John 2:2. You did nothing to disprove my exposition of it.

 

[DHK]

Are you trying to make an argument from silence?

Concerning Cornelius, no. The evidence is clear. He wasn't saved nor did the Holy Spirit come until the Gospel was preached by Peter. In fact that is the very reason why God sent Peter to the house of Cornelius.

Concerning the others mentioned, perhaps. There is no reason to believe otherwise. Especially David. David constantly asserts in his psalms that his heart pants after the Lord; he thirsts after God, and does so always. There wasn't a time in David's life where he didn't. That is what the Psalms indicate. When Samuel came to the house of Jesse, they described David as just a youth. Even then he sang praises to the Lord while keeping the sheep. Surely the Lord was with him then as he had killed both a lion and a bear. All indicators point to the fact that David sought after the Lord. Over and over again he states that he sought after the Lord. My soul seeks after thee.

 

[Revmitchell]

Concerning Cornelius, no. The evidence is clear. He wasn't saved nor did the Holy Spirit come until the Gospel was preached by Peter. In fact that is the very reason why God sent Peter to the house of Cornelius.

Concerning the others mentioned, perhaps. There is no reason to believe otherwise. Especially David. David constantly asserts in his psalms that his heart pants after the Lord; he thirsts after God, and does so always. There wasn't a time in David's life where he didn't. That is what the Psalms indicate. When Samuel came to the house of Jesse, they described David as just a youth. Even then he sang praises to the Lord while keeping the sheep. Surely the Lord was with him then as he had killed both a lion and a bear. All indicators point to the fact that David sought after the Lord. Over and over again he states that he sought after the Lord. My soul seeks after thee.

Ok, but the question remains, why did David always seek the Lord?

 

[DHK]

Ok, but the question remains, why did David always seek the Lord?

There are two reasons. The first is obvious. As a believer he was filled with the Spirit.
But the second is not so obvious and should be rephrased: When did David start seeking the Lord?
David was brought up in a Godly Jewish family. We cannot read the process of "regeneration" back into the OT. We know that David became a man after God's own heart, and that at a very early age. Did David at one time seek God, or did God initiate the process. I don't believe the latter has to be the case in each and ever case since the Bible says otherwise.

There are many commands given to the unsaved to: Seek the Lord while he may be found." There is nothing to stop an individual from seeking the Lord except Calvinist theology.

 

[percho]

I have addressed the topic. Continually crying foul is wearisome and doesn't help your case.


It doesn't matter how many times you repeat it, it's wrong. A propitiation is not the same as a means of salvation. You are presenting a syllogism that goes
1. Christ is our propitiation.
2. Christ is also our means of salvation (He isn't, but let that pass for the moment).
Conclusion: Propitiation equals means of salvation.

Let's try another syllogism:
1. Rabbits like lettuce.
2. I like lettuce.
Conclusion: I am a rabbit.

Christ is our Saviour. He has propitiated God towards a vast crowd of people that no man can number by means of His sacrificial death. The means of salvation is the New Birth (Titus 3:5 again) which leads to repentance and faith.


Christ is indeed our ark, our city of refuge, our shelter from God's righteous anger (Isaiah 26:20-21). We were given to Him by God before the foundation of the world (Eph. 1:4-5) and He has redeemed every single one given to Him by the Father (John 6:39 etc.). What you appear to be saying (and please correct me if I'm wrong) is that after Christ has reconciled every single person on the planet to God, after God is propitiated by the blood of Christ, after that, He still decides to send a whole pile of redeemed sinners to hell! I can't accept that for a moment. Christ 'shall see the labour of His soul and be satisfied' (Isaiah 53:11). How could He be satisfied if millions for whom He suffered and died will not be with Him in heaven? How could He say, "It is finished!" if His work were still subject to the Father's overruling? On the Last Day, will He say, "Here am I and some of the children God has given Me"?


That is not what the text says. It says He is the propitiation for the whole world. You have not proved that 'the whole world' means 'all the people in the whole world.'

For crying out loud! Our sins do not need to be propitiated. God needs to be propitiated, and then the sins of those towards who He is propitiated are set aside, forgiven etc.




Amen!
,
Amen again! :thumbs:

This makes no sense.

I hope I have done so above. For the umpteenth time, sinners do not need to be propitiated, God does!

Look, if a man has offended his wife and forfeited her wifely smiles and favours, he goes off and buys her a bunch of flowers and a box of chocs. That is what a propitiation is- a sacrifice that turns away wrath. 'And in that day you will say, "O LORD, I will praise you; though you were angry with me, Your anger is turned away, and You comfort Me"' (Isaiah 12:1). What day is that? The day of Jesus Christ (11:10). Christ is the Mediator between sinful men and an outraged God (1 Tim. 2:5). He reconciles them by paying the penalty due for their sins. God's outraged justice is propitiated by the sufferings of Christ. Sinners do not need to be propitiated, sins to not need to be propitiated; God needs to be propitiated.

Now the guy who buys the flowers and chocs doesn't know if his wife is going to be propitiated. She might say, "Don't think you're going to get round me like that!" She might hold out for a slap-up meal in a fancy restaurant. But we know that God is propitiated by the death of Christ, because He 'set [Him] forth as a propitiation..... to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.'

'Payment God will not twice demand;
once at my bleeding Surety's hand,
And then again from me.'

John 1:29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

Would it be correct to say that, God was propitiated, therefore he extended, his mercy through the one who propitiated him?

How was God, the Father I assume, propitiated?

He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: because he hath poured out his soul unto death:

Just how dead was the one who propitiated? We have a satisfied God, the Father I assume, and a dead Son of God. What exactly was/is the mercy by which we, were/shall be saved? Aorist.

And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins. 1 Cor 15:17

What is the grace of God, the Father I assume, that allowed the blood of the Son of God, to wash away our sins, so we are not yet in our sins?

What did the satisfied God, the Father I assume, do?

 

[Yeshua1]

Concerning Cornelius, no. The evidence is clear. He wasn't saved nor did the Holy Spirit come until the Gospel was preached by Peter. In fact that is the very reason why God sent Peter to the house of Cornelius.

Concerning the others mentioned, perhaps. There is no reason to believe otherwise. Especially David. David constantly asserts in his psalms that his heart pants after the Lord; he thirsts after God, and does so always. There wasn't a time in David's life where he didn't. That is what the Psalms indicate. When Samuel came to the house of Jesse, they described David as just a youth. Even then he sang praises to the Lord while keeping the sheep. Surely the Lord was with him then as he had killed both a lion and a bear. All indicators point to the fact that David sought after the Lord. Over and over again he states that he sought after the Lord. My soul seeks after thee.

Cornelius is a prime example to how though of how just a sinner perceives that there is a God!

Romans states that nature itself points that truth out for all to see, and sinners will see that and some grasp that he exists, but that is NOT able to save anyone, belieiving that god exists, as there MUST still be the work of the Holy spirit to open them up to receiving the truths of the Gospel, and by faith receive Jesus as Lord!

Total Depravilty does not mean that no one will ever believe in "God", as all of us have idols of one kind or another to "worship" but that unless/until the Lord opens up their hearts and mind to Jesus, none of them will ever get to the point of 'saving faith"

 

[DHK]

Cornelius is a prime example to how though of how just a sinner perceives that there is a God!

Not only does he perceive there is a God he believes in God, has faith in God. He knows who Jehovah is. He is accepted among the Jews and has been listening to the teaching at the synagogues. The Jews accepted this man, a Roman Centurion, as a "devout man" among the Jews, not the Christians; one that feared God, the God of the Jews, not the Christians. He did believe and have faith in God.
But the Jews rejected the Messiah. One doesn't hear the gospel preached from the synagogue. He needed the gospel in order to be regenerated/saved. He sought God. God answered his prayer and sent Peter with the gospel, and thus upon hearing the Word--the gospel of Christ--he was regenerated/saved.

Romans states that nature itself points that truth out for all to see, and sinners will see that and some grasp that he exists, but that is NOT able to save anyone, belieiving that god exists, as there MUST still be the work of the Holy spirit to open them up to receiving the truths of the Gospel, and by faith receive Jesus as Lord!

Romans one and two teach us these basic truths:
God's truth concerning himself can be found in His creation.
God's law concerning himself is found in the heat of man.
God testifies of himself in the conscience of every man.
Thus when man stands before God he will have no excuse for not believing in Him. He has enough of the revelation of God to put his faith in Him (Rom.1:20).
Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

Total Depravilty does not mean that no one will ever believe in "God", as all of us have idols of one kind or another to "worship" but that unless/until the Lord opens up their hearts and mind to Jesus, none of them will ever get to the point of 'saving faith"

That is Total Inability. The Bible doesn't teach that. Neither does the Bible teach anything about "saving faith." Where is that term found in the Bible?
Cornelius believed or had faith in God.
When Peter came he put that same faith in Christ. It wasn't any magical, mysterious, mystical faith given by God. Faith is faith. It is believing.
As he believed in Jehovah before, now he put his faith in Christ. Because his faith is in Christ he is saved. It is Christ that saves, not the faith. Faith is the means by which one is saved.
For by grace are ye saved through faith.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

Not only does he perceive there is a God he believes in God, has faith in God. He knows who Jehovah is. He is accepted among the Jews and has been listening to the teaching at the synagogues. The Jews accepted this man, a Roman Centurion, as a "devout man" among the Jews, not the Christians; one that feared God, the God of the Jews, not the Christians. He did believe and have faith in God.
But the Jews rejected the Messiah. One doesn't hear the gospel preached from the synagogue. He needed the gospel in order to be regenerated/saved. He sought God. God answered his prayer and sent Peter with the gospel, and thus upon hearing the Word--the gospel of Christ--he was regenerated/saved.


Romans one and two teach us these basic truths:
God's truth concerning himself can be found in His creation.
God's law concerning himself is found in the heat of man.
God testifies of himself in the conscience of every man.
Thus when man stands before God he will have no excuse for not believing in Him. He has enough of the revelation of God to put his faith in Him (Rom.1:20).
Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

Amen! :thumbs: There is no difference between us on that.

That is Total Inability. The Bible doesn't teach that. Neither does the Bible teach anything about "saving faith." Where is that term found in the Bible?

Do you know what Christians mean when they talk about 'saving faith'? Just to believe that there was such a Person as Jesus of Nazareth who lived a long time ago and did a lot of good stuff gets you nowhere. Even the demons believed in Jesus. The faith that saves is seeing oneself as a poor lost sinner; seeing the Lord Jesus Christ as your Lord and Saviour, turning away from sin and laying hold of Christ as a drowning man lays hold of a life-belt. If you want to know where saving faith is in the Bible, have a look at Luke 18:13-14.

For by grace are ye saved through faith.

'.......and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God.'
Whether you think it is the grace and the faith that is the gift of God, or just the faith, the fact is that it comes from God. 'No one understands, no one seeks for God. All have turned aside; together they have become worthless. That is why the Lord Jesus said, 'No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draw him' (John 6:44, ESV).

 

[DHK]

Amen! :thumbs: There is no difference between us on that.

Do you know what Christians mean when they talk about 'saving faith'? Just to believe that there was such a Person as Jesus of Nazareth who lived a long time ago and did a lot of good stuff gets you nowhere. Even the demons believed in Jesus. The faith that saves is seeing oneself as a poor lost sinner; seeing the Lord Jesus Christ as your Lord and Saviour, turning away from sin and laying hold of Christ as a drowning man lays hold of a life-belt. If you want to know where saving faith is in the Bible, have a look at Luke 18:13-14.

Yes there is a difference between having head knowledge and having faith.
The demons are not putting their faith in God to save them, but they know and believe God exists. God is not the object of their faith. The object of their faith, however, is their leader Satan. They are still deluded that when Satan wages war with God that he will gain the upper hand. They still have faith. The big question is "What is the object of their faith"?

You are contradicting yourself.
You agree with me in the first half of the post. They believed in God. They had no excuse. That faith was "saving faith." In other words they put their faith in God. It is the same kind of faith they need to put in Christ to save them. The nature of faith does not change.

'.......and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God.'
Whether you think it is the grace and the faith that is the gift of God, or just the faith, the fact is that it comes from God. 'No one understands, no one seeks for God. All have turned aside; together they have become worthless. That is why the Lord Jesus said, 'No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draw him' (John 6:44, ESV).

The grace is the grace of Christ on the cross that provided salvation for us.
The faith is the means by which salvation is given to us.
Thus salvation is by grace through faith.

When the Bible says "no man seeks after God," it is a quote from Psalms and it is a general statement descriptive of mankind.
Note that it does not say: "No man cannot seek after God," or "No man does not have the ability to seek after God." That is not what the Scriptures teach.
It is evident that Cornelius sought out God.
Men, in general, don't seek after God. That is not an absolute, but a general statement given by the Psalmist. It doesn't mean they can't or won't.

That belief flies in the face of the great majority of Scripture which command mankind to seek his face. God is not a schizophrenic that tells man to seek him in one place and turns around and says you cannot seek him in another. This belief makes the Bible contradict itself, and we know it doesn't.

Acts 17:26 And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation;
27 That they should seek the Lord, if haply they might feel after him, and find him, though he be not far from every one of us:
--God has created the conditions such that men may seek the Lord. That is his will.

1Ch 16:11 Seek the LORD and his strength, seek his face continually.

2Ch 15:2 And he went out to meet Asa, and said unto him, Hear ye me, Asa, and all Judah and Benjamin; The LORD is with you, while ye be with him; and if ye seek him, he will be found of you; but if ye forsake him, he will forsake you.

Psa 9:10 And they that know thy name will put their trust in thee: for thou, LORD, hast not forsaken them that seek thee.

Psa 22:26 The meek shall eat and be satisfied: they shall praise the LORD that seek him: your heart shall live for ever.

Psa 34:10 The young lions do lack, and suffer hunger: but they that seek the LORD shall not want any good thing.

Psa 40:16 Let all those that seek thee rejoice and be glad in thee: let such as love thy salvation say continually, The LORD be magnified.

Psa 69:6 Let not them that wait on thee, O Lord GOD of hosts, be ashamed for my sake: let not those that seek thee be confounded for my sake, O God of Israel.

Pro 28:5 Evil men understand not judgment: but they that seek the LORD understand all things.

Hos 10:12 Sow to yourselves in righteousness, reap in mercy; break up your fallow ground: for it is time to seek the LORD, till he come and rain righteousness upon you.

Zep 2:3 Seek ye the LORD, all ye meek of the earth, which have wrought his judgment; seek righteousness, seek meekness: it may be ye shall be hid in the day of the LORD'S anger.