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Could some of your children be not elect of God?

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Particular

Well-Known Member
Then we are just robots. Why did God suffer the cross?
Read Romans 9. Paul answers your argument.

Romans 9:6-24 But it is not as though the word of God has failed. For not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel, and not all are children of Abraham because they are his offspring, but “Through Isaac shall your offspring be named.” This means that it is not the children of the flesh who are the children of God, but the children of the promise are counted as offspring. For this is what the promise said: “About this time next year I will return, and Sarah shall have a son.” And not only so, but also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac, though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God’s purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls— she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.” What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God’s part? By no means! For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.” So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I might show my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.” So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills. You will say to me then, “Why does he still find fault? For who can resist his will?” But who are you, O man, to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, “Why have you made me like this?” Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for dishonorable use? What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory— even us whom he has called, not from the Jews only but also from the Gentiles?
 

George Antonios

Well-Known Member
Careful, you are asking them to take all of Scripture into account, that means they can't cherry pick verses....
You mean the chapter wherein the author himself concludes his own meaning by telling you that God's election was not based on works but on faith?:
Rom 9:30 What shall we say then? [i.e. what's the conclusion of Romans 9? That God predestinated people to salvation by an pre-temporal mysterious decree, and so, 'tough apples'? No:] That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained [got that? attained] to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
Rom 9:31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
Rom 9:32
Wherefore? [Because God predestinated people to salvation by an pre-temporal mysterious decree, and so, 'tough apples'? No:] Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;
Rom 9:33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.


How can you guys go against the man's own conclusion to his own words?! Evidently, you misunderstood his words.
It's just baffling.
 

Alan Gross

Well-Known Member
My God has graciously given me two lovely daughters, for whom I thank him.
The question is to my Calvinist brethren. Given your interpretation of Romans 9, where God elected/loved Jacob but rejected/hated Esau, do you countenance the very real possibility that some of your children may be predestinated to be rejected/hated of God and on their way to an eternal fire because of God's purpose of will to show off his wrath in them - and that there's nothing you can do about it? Or is it only other people's children that are damned?
I'm not talking about the possibility that some our children may not get saved because of their own freewill rejection - the way a non-Calvinist sees the matter.
I'm talking about the Calvinist idea that some of them may already be damned with no hope of salvation because of some eternal mysterious decree.


Are questions, created in the mind of a child of The Fall of Adam that is cursed by sin, as we all are, like, "Could some of your children be not elect of God?", be the reason heretics invent Anti-Christ, God-Hating False Religions that show no love for The Bible, as God's Revelation of Who He is and What He Does?

Sure.

God is God.

That which is flesh is flesh.

Darwin was motivated by his relatives that he was worried were going to Hell and even invented, 'life comes from non-life', the way heretics say, 'Eternal Life is selected by a Spiritually dead soul'.

That's what heretics are called to do.

Just not by The God of The Bible.

The large print is from copying the lastest request, in the thread's heading, for things that someone can tell other people are stupid.

These are recognizance fact-gathering espionage inquiries.

Bible Believers don't ask such.

Bible Believers Believe The Bible when it's quoted.

Not Satan's lies.

Roman's 9:11 "(For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that The Purpose of God According to Election Might Stand, not of works, but of Him that Calleth;)"

I didn't say this person was lost.

I said there is such a thing as a Bible Believer.

"Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think anything as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God". - 2 Corinthians 3:5
 
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Alan Gross

Well-Known Member
Simple, I have placed faith and trust in Christ and confessed Him as Lord.


...and that He PAID your sin debt and God Accepted it, when Jesus Rose from the Dead, and YOU BELIEVE JESUS ROSE FOR YOU, etc., etc., etc.

I just wrote some of the billion things that are already IMPLIED by your Testimony of Salvation.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
You mean the chapter wherein the author himself concludes his own meaning by telling you that God's election was not based on works but on faith?:
Rom 9:30 What shall we say then? [i.e. what's the conclusion of Romans 9? That God predestinated people to salvation by an pre-temporal mysterious decree, and so, 'tough apples'? No:] That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained [got that? attained] to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
Rom 9:31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
Rom 9:32
Wherefore? [Because God predestinated people to salvation by an pre-temporal mysterious decree, and so, 'tough apples'? No:] Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;
Rom 9:33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.


How can you guys go against the man's own conclusion to his own words?! Evidently, you misunderstood his words.
It's just baffling.
When have we said otherwise?
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
I referenced 1Peter 1:2 according to the foreknowledge of God. And this stuff about "relationships" is not misquoting?
"Foreknowledge" does not mean He knew they would believe. That is misquoting. The word means He knew them in relationship.

I think you also quoted Eph.

Peace to you
 
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