I can agree with that. Since it is not His will that any should perish and that all should come to repentance, Why does the Holy Spirit not illuminate The Gospel to all?
First, consider the scope of God's will in 2 Peter 3:9. Leading up to verse 9, Peter is telling his readers that those who reject the imminent coming of the Lord forget that is the same Lord who created all there is, and the physical world is being maintained (by God) for the coming day of judgment. But it is also being maintained for another purpose. In 2 Peter 3:8 the Apostle writes, "But do not let this one
fact escape your notice, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day." The Apostle is putting things in perspective for the reader. God is not constrained by time. What may seem as an inordinate amount of time to us is a mere tick of the second hand to God. But why did the Apostle write those words? Because in the often quoted verse 9 he writes, "The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance." So, does God,
indeed, will that "
any" should not perish? Yes. That is what the text says. But does "
any" mean every person who ever lived or ever will live? I think the answer to that question is a qualified no.
Because of the context of the entire chapter, I believe the "
any" in verse 9 is the entirety of the Elect, i.e. all those God has predestined for salvation. I also believe the text makes an unspoken appeal to the nature of God. God accomplishes everything He decrees. For God to decree something, and being unable to accomplish the thing He decrees, makes God less than omnipotent. At this point those on the Synergist side will say that God gave man free will, so therefore God desires that all come to Him, but He must allow them to make a choice. Where that view fails is that it creates a huge hole in God's nature. Is man's will greater than the desire of God? Is man's free will actually a self-autonomous free will that can act independent of God? Or could it be that man's free will (if that term is even accurate) is subservient to his nature; if dead in sin a distorted will that is in bondage to sin (Romans 6:6), or a will that has been liberated and free to serve God (Romans 6:18)? I believe scripture teaches it is the latter. God is having patience with this sinful, corrupt world until all of his Elect (the "
any") are brought into the fold.