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Has ALL Humanity Been Given a Measure of Faith?

Dave G

Well-Known Member
To me, Scripture is clear:

Hebrews 12:2 tells me that Jesus Christ authored and finished the believer's faith.
Hebrews 11:1 is clear in that faith is the substance of things hoped for, and the evidence of things not seen.
Hebrews 11:3 says that by it, the believer understands that the worlds ( plural ) were framed ( built ) by the word of God. In other words, without faith, no one believes God's words.
2 Thessalonians 3:2 tells me that not all men have it.
Philippians 1:29 is clear that it is given to the believer, in the behalf of Christ, to believe. Something that is given is a gift.
Galatians 5:19-23 is clear in that faith is a fruit of the Spirit. It is not a work of the flesh.
Ephesians 2:8 tells me that faith is the gift "of" God. It is not "of" ourselves...which brings us to where it comes from:
Galatians 2:16-21 tells me that we live by the faith "of" Christ...

" We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,
16 knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, is therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.
18 For if I build again the things which I destroyed, I make myself a transgressor.
19 For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness [come] by the law, then Christ is dead in vain."


"Of" means "originates with", "by" or "from".
" indicating an association between two entities, typically one of belonging."
" used as a function word to indicate origin or derivation."
"by"
" used as a function word to indicate belonging or a possessive relationship."

Definition of OF


It is the faith "of" Jesus Christ, who authored and finished it for us, and is the evidence of our being His.
 
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Dave G

Well-Known Member
" For I say, through the grace given unto me, to every man that is among you, not to think [of himself] more highly than he ought to think; but to think soberly, according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith."

@AustinC :
Here I see that the context of the "every man" in Romans 12:3 is "every man that is among you" in the earlier part of the verse.
That's one reason why I do not believe that all men have been dealt the measure of faith by the Lord;
Only His people have.

The other reasons I've listed in my prior post, # 21.


May God bless you. :)
 
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Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Has ALL Humanity Been Given a Measure of Faith?

God gives everyone a measure of faith through His creation, as it is written, Romans 10:17-18, ". . . faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world. . . ." Psalms 19:4.

Christian epistemology. True knowledge comes from God, Proverbs 1:7, "The fear of the LORD is the beginning of knowledge: . . ."
Your understanding of Romans 10:17ff is incorrect. To be sure, they (the Israelites) heard, but hearing is not believing. Hence, Paul continues, 'But to Israel He says, "All day long I have held out My hands to a disobedient and contrary people' (v.21).
Hebrews 4:2. 'For indeed the gospel was preached to us as well as to them (the Israelites who did not enter God's rest); but the word which they heard did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in those who heard it.'
 

Dave G

Well-Known Member
To be sure, they (the Israelites) heard, but hearing is not believing. Hence, Paul continues, 'But to Israel He says, "All day long I have held out My hands to a disobedient and contrary people' (v.21).
Hebrews 4:2. 'For indeed the gospel was preached to us as well as to them (the Israelites who did not enter God's rest); but the word which they heard did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in those who heard it.'
Amen...for how could the word of God profit anyone, unless they hear and believe it?
 
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1689Dave

Well-Known Member
God must first save you before you can have biblical faith. It is a fruit of the Holy Spirit.
 

Earth Wind and Fire

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The above statement is an assertion of universality about humans that the Bible does not confirm. Instead, the assertion comes from the philosophy of man and is then forced upon God as though it were a fact.


Is MB's assertion supported in the Bible or does the Bible support something else? If something else, what does the Bible support about faith and when someone receives faith?
This is discussed ad nauseaum . Simple Bible passages would outline mans dependence on God to save but some will continue on in their insistence that man chooses wether to be saved or not. Personally I’m done arguing this… allow them their opinion and it will eventually be sorted out.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Does this mean you think faith is innate in every human from birth? This is the question to answer from this thread.

what does Romans chapter 10, verses 16 and 17, say?

"16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our report?” So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God"

The preaching of the Gospel Message with the power of the Holy Spirit, can convict the sinner of their sins, and their need for Jesus Christ as their personal Saviour. This takes place when the sinner has faith or belief in Jesus Christ as their Saviour and Lord.

If faith has been given only to the elect, then no person can be condemned for not believing, as we read in John 3:18, “He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God". And Mark 16:16, "Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned". And in many other places. How can God justly condemn any sinner for not believing, and having faith, if He has made sure that they are not recipients of His gift of faith in the first place? If a person CANNOT believe, because they are so from birth, then God CANNOT condemn them, for something that they CANNOT do!

2 Thessalonians 3:2 is often misunderstood to show that only some are given faith by God, for their salvation. Paul here says, "For not all have faith", which can easily mean, that not everyone has faith in God, or, believes in the Gospel of Jesus Christ; which are very true. Note that Paul goes on to say, "But the Lord is faithful" (verse 3). The Greek πίστις which is used in verse 2, also has the meaning "faithful", which agrees with what Paul says of God in verse 3.
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
what does Romans chapter 10, verses 16 and 17, say?

"16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our report?” So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God"

The preaching of the Gospel Message with the power of the Holy Spirit, can convict the sinner of their sins, and their need for Jesus Christ as their personal Saviour. This takes place when the sinner has faith or belief in Jesus Christ as their Saviour and Lord.

If faith has been given only to the elect, then no person can be condemned for not believing, as we read in John 3:18, “He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God". And Mark 16:16, "Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned". And in many other places. How can God justly condemn any sinner for not believing, and having faith, if He has made sure that they are not recipients of His gift of faith in the first place? If a person CANNOT believe, because they are so from birth, then God CANNOT condemn them, for something that they CANNOT do!

2 Thessalonians 3:2 is often misunderstood to show that only some are given faith by God, for their salvation. Paul here says, "For not all have faith", which can easily mean, that not everyone has faith in God, or, believes in the Gospel of Jesus Christ; which are very true. Note that Paul goes on to say, "But the Lord is faithful" (verse 3). The Greek πίστις which is used in verse 2, also has the meaning "faithful", which agrees with what Paul says of God in verse 3.
Thanks, can I take from this that you believe faith is given to a person at birth? Or do you agree that faith comes by hearing and hearing comes when God speaks your name, Romans 10:16-17?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
If ALL men have a measure of faith, then are you calling Paul a liar that says ALL men do not?... Brother Glen:)

2 Thessalonians 3:1 Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the word of the Lord may have free course, and be glorified, even as it is with you:

3:2 And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all men have not faith.

I'm not referring to you Van I'm answer the OP
The fact that all people do not put their faith in Christ such that God does not credit their "faith" is not in dispute.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Has all humanity been given faith? It seems you are saying no. It seems you are saying that faith is restricted to the Christian who believes. Is this accurate or am I misunderstanding your position?
Not even close. I will will jump up and down the day a Calvinist actually presents my views accurately. No one is given their area of ministry within the body of Christ until they are saved, thus their holy calling or ministry...
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
Not even close. I will will jump up and down the day a Calvinist actually presents my views accurately. No one is given their area of ministry within the body of Christ until they are saved, thus their holy calling or ministry...

So you agree with Glen and his quote of scripture:
2 Thessalonians 3:1 Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the word of the Lord may have free course, and be glorified, even as it is with you:

3:2 And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all men have not faith.


Not everyone has faith.

Area of ministry and holy calling is not the topic.

Van, no one holds your views, regardless of whether you call them Calvinists, Arminians, Waldensians or any other theological view.
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
Once again an obvious absurdity is hoisted to hide the fact the gift of faith is a fiction.

https://www.vbc.online/blog/2020/5/21/what-does-measure-of-faith-mean-in-romans-123
Van, is faith therefore innate and always within every human from inception?

If not, how then can it not be a gift from God?

Your link rightly understands how faith works, after it has been given, but it doesn't explain when faith begins in a human. Therefore it is of little value to this thread.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Thanks, can I take from this that you believe faith is given to a person at birth? Or do you agree that faith comes by hearing and hearing comes when God speaks your name, Romans 10:16-17?

what the Bible says in Romans 10. Why, do you disagree with this?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Van, is faith therefore innate and always within every human from inception?

If not, how then can it not be a gift from God?

Your link rightly understands how faith works, after it has been given, but it doesn't explain when faith begins in a human. Therefore it is of little value to this thread.

LOL, you said no one holds this view - measure of faith refers to our area of ministry - which the link shows was an absurd and false statement. But do you address your mendacity? Nope, once again you seek to change the subject.

BTW folks, I have answered that "deflection question" more than a dozen times. No one has "innate" faith.
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
what the Bible says in Romans 10. Why, do you disagree with this?
I don't disagree with Romans 10:14-20.
How then will they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in him of whom they have never heard? And how are they to hear without someone preaching? And how are they to preach unless they are sent? As it is written, “How beautiful are the feet of those who preach the good news!” But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed what he has heard from us?” So faith comes from hearing, and hearing through the word of Christ. But I ask, have they not heard? Indeed they have, for “Their voice has gone out to all the earth, and their words to the ends of the world.” But I ask, did Israel not understand? First Moses says, “I will make you jealous of those who are not a nation; with a foolish nation I will make you angry.” Then Isaiah is so bold as to say, “I have been found by those who did not seek me; I have shown myself to those who did not ask for me.”

This passage tells us that a person must hear the voice of God before they have faith.

Do you disagree?
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
LOL, you said no one holds this view - measure of faith refers to our area of ministry - which the link shows was an absurd and false statement. But do you address your mendacity? Nope, once again you seek to change the subject.

BTW folks, I have answered that "deflection question" more than a dozen times. No one has "innate" faith.
Van, you are not speaking to the topic of this thread.
How faith works after salvation is a different topic. What is being discussed is whether faith is innately built in to every human at birth. You seem to be elusive on this topic.

Is faith innate within all humans at the time of conception? It's either yes or no. Dial it in, Van.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
I don't disagree with Romans 10:14-20.
How then will they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in him of whom they have never heard? And how are they to hear without someone preaching? And how are they to preach unless they are sent? As it is written, “How beautiful are the feet of those who preach the good news!” But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed what he has heard from us?” So faith comes from hearing, and hearing through the word of Christ. But I ask, have they not heard? Indeed they have, for “Their voice has gone out to all the earth, and their words to the ends of the world.” But I ask, did Israel not understand? First Moses says, “I will make you jealous of those who are not a nation; with a foolish nation I will make you angry.” Then Isaiah is so bold as to say, “I have been found by those who did not seek me; I have shown myself to those who did not ask for me.”

This passage tells us that a person must hear the voice of God before they have faith.

Do you disagree?

you are speaking in riddles! on the one hand you say that people are born with saving faith, and on the other, that it does come from hearing of the Word of God, which is external! You cannot have it both ways, as one excludes the other.

Yes, the sinner is first convicted by the preaching of the Gospel Message, as in Acts 2:27, when those that heard Peter preach, were "cut to the heart", by the Holy Spirit, as Jesus says in John 16:8. Then they can call upon the Lord in faith, to get saved.
 
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