From ....
http://www.theopedia.com/Decrees_of_God
Quote:
The word "decree" is found in Psalm 2:7, etc. In Ephesians 3:11 we read of His "eternal purpose." In Acts 2:23 of His "determinate counsel and foreknowledge." In Ephesians 1:9 of the mystery of His "will." In Romans 8:29 that He also did predestinate. In Ephesians 1:9 of His "good pleasure." God’s decrees are called His "counsel" to signify they are consummately wise. They are called God’s "will" to show He was under no control, but acted according to His own pleasure. When a man’s will is the rule of his conduct, it is usually capricious and unreasonable; but wisdom is always associated with "will" in the Divine proceedings, and accordingly, God’s decrees are said to be "the counsel of His own will" (Eph. 1:11).
I'm really trying to understand the freewill view of Gods decrees and how they see it being God determinate counsel when they say it is based on what man does.
If we were to make a list of events in the order in which they happen, what comes 1st?
I as a Calvinist see it this way.
1) God decrees it.
2) It happens.
As I understand it, freewillers view it this way.
God decress based on what he knows will happen. Therefore the knowledge of what will happen, must exist, yet not have taken placed before the decree.
This is what I do not understand. If the decree of God comes after the knowledge of God, where is the power of the decree? In this view, it would seem to me that if the decree does not ever come from God it does not matter. For if God sees what will come about, nothing will change no matter what, or else God did not see what will come about. So if he bases His decree on what He knows will happen, why decree anything?
So I would like freewillers to give their order of events as I have showed my views above so that I can be clear on this.
THANKS FOR YOUR INPUT.
In Christ...James