KenH
Well-Known Member
Are you sure you understand what the sovereignty of God entails.?
With my puny human brain? Of course not.
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Are you sure you understand what the sovereignty of God entails.?
You wanted to deflect from John 12:32 and what "all" means in that text so you jump to another verse in the attempt to support your odd view.
You seem to have a real problem with context Ken.
What does Luk 2:1 have to do with John 12:32 except that the word "all" is found in both verses.
So Jesus blood actually covers the sins of literally all mankind? If so, thats universalism
I know you're a good person, Ken, but that is some messed up theology you're following right there!
A total misunderstanding of God's sovereignty. What a mess it is!
The fact that Jesus did indeed die for all the sins of all humanity does not mean every person will automatically be saved. Each person has to trust in Christ individually. If Christ died only for the elect, which is not substantiated by any Bible verse, then the unsaved have an excuse for not responding to the gospel.True. Those opposed to salvation by the free sovereign grace of God, including the Biblical truth of particular redemption, try to run away from the logical conclusion that arises from their teaching that Christ paid the sin debt of every person that will ever live, namely, that if Christ paid the sin debt for every person who will ever live, then every person who will ever live will be, must be, saved. That is the logical conclusion of their false teaching, regardless of how much they try in vain to deny it.
I was not deflecting.
No, I just disagree with your false gospel.
I was simply proving that you can't just assume every time you see the word "all" that it means every person on earth, as obviously in Luke 2:1 it does not.