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Sometimes we need to be comfortable understanding that we cannot know all the explicit details of a doctrine or God.
But at least we can understand very easely the doctrine of kenosis. Paul did explained to the Philipians in very few words and they did understood it.
God the Son did emtied himself of all divine atributes and yet continues to be God. Because being or not being God is not conected to the divine atributes.
In few words, Jesus did not have any of the divine atributes. He was not omnipotent, omniscient or had any other supernatural hability, capacity or power that made him any higher that any other man. He did live as man with not any privilege or help. And did it with no sin.
Probably we can not understand some doctrines, but those we understand we have to keep and teach.
24But Jesus did not commit himself unto them, because he knew all men,Now the big question: was Jesus omniscient?
If Jesus was in fact omniscient, then my opinion is in problems.
This is not biblical teaching...this is error.
24But Jesus did not commit himself unto them, because he knew all men,
25And needed not that any should testify of man: for he knew what was in man.
You're still being too binary in your thinking, too Western. Jesus can be fully God, and yet self-limit the Divine manner of His existence as fully Man, thus whilst He remained, for example, omniscient as to His Divine Nature, He chose to not operate with that faculty during His Incarnation.I am not sure if I undersdtand your post; but strongly believe that my posts are not being understood.
We can not denay kenosis, we can not make a christology ignoring it or pretendidng is not writen in the NT. If God the Son was God before kenosis and he continues to be God after kenosis; then we have to figure out what kenosis means.
1."Christ had a human soul, to which the Logos imparted his divinity, little by little until he became completely divine" (Dorner).
2.Christ "laid aside his deity which was then restored at the ascension" (Gess and Beecher).
3.He "abandoned certain prerogatives of the divine mode of existence in order to assume the human," e.g., omniscience" (Gore).
4."He surrendered the external, physical attributes of omniscience, though retaining the attributes of love and truth (A. M. Fairbairn). This was also held by Thomasius, Deilitzsch, and H. Crosby."
5.Christ "lived a double life from two, non-communicating life centers. As God, he continued his Trinitarian and providential existence, and as man he was united with a human nature. He did not know consciously anything of his divine, Trinitarian existence" (Martensen).
6."He disguised his deity and attributes, not by giving them up, but by limiting them to a time-form appropriate to a human mode of existence ... His attributes could only be expressed in relation to the (human) time and space that his human form could experience" (Ebrard).
7."He gave up the use of the attributes (cf. Carson, FD&FPJ, 35)."
8."He gave up the independent exercise of the divine attributes (Strong, ST, 703)."
9."He limited himself to the voluntary non-use of the attributes (Walvoord)."
It is biblical...only that you dont like it.
That is a pretty cocky attitude and one that will only make enemies.
However, I also disagree with you. In reading the gospels, we see clearly that Jesus knew much more than a man. He knew that the man's daughter was going to be raised from the dead - and He did that in His own power. He raised Lazarus by His own power. He knew that the blind man was blind just to bring glory to God when Jesus healed him. Jesus was more than a mere man on earth - He was still God.
But at least we can understand very easely the doctrine of kenosis. Paul did explained to the Philipians in very few words and they did understood it.
But at least we can understand very easely the doctrine of kenosis. Paul did explained to the Philipians in very few words and they did understood it.
God the Son did emtied himself of all divine atributes and yet continues to be God. Because being or not being God is not conected to the divine atributes.
In few words, Jesus did not have any of the divine atributes. He was not omnipotent, omniscient or had any other supernatural hability, capacity or power that made him any higher that any other man. He did live as man with not any privilege or help. And did it with no sin.
Probably we can not understand some doctrines, but those we understand we have to keep and teach.
You're still being too binary in your thinking, too Western. Jesus can be fully God, and yet self-limit the Divine manner of His existence as fully Man, thus whilst He remained, for example, omniscient as to His Divine Nature, He chose to not operate with that faculty during His Incarnation.
Here is a good article that can add to the discussion:
http://kenosis.info/index.shtml
From that article (cited in the article: Rodney Decker, "Philippians 2:5-11, The Kenosis," at http://www.bbc.edu/courses/BBS/RDecker/DckrKen.htm.). Common modern thoughts about the kenosis with the writers who stated them:
That is a pretty cocky attitude and one that will only make enemies.
However, I also disagree with you. In reading the gospels, we see clearly that Jesus knew much more than a man. He knew that the man's daughter was going to be raised from the dead - and He did that in His own power. He raised Lazarus by His own power. He knew that the blind man was blind just to bring glory to God when Jesus healed him. Jesus was more than a mere man on earth - He was still God.
Indeed! He knew to go to the home of Lazarus, and explained to His disciples the reason why. Full divinity/deity, just not released on humanity -- largely for our sake. Who can view God in His full glory and live? :jesus:
No he didn't and no we can't
Your conclusions are false and totally deficient. In your erroneous view man also can heal the sick and raise the dead, as you teach Jesus had no more abilities than other men. This is false teaching that you convey.
Good human thinking but not biblical at all.
good human thinking but not bilbical support.
If you are trying to reconcile both kenosis and the hypostatic union, you will fail. The two are mutually exclusive in the form that you seek.
Several here on the board have tried to tell you as much, but you return with a very blunt "you are not scriptural" when in fact, we are scriptural.
The very idea of kenosis as you present does not exist in Scripture. It is a theological concept that you are importing into Scripture, then searching to find rationale to support. That is why you are having difficulty.
Perhaps, instead of asking us what WE think of kenosis (which we have told you now for multiple posts) it is time for YOU to tell us what is your idea of kenosis. It is a fair return on our investment in your mental exercise.