Obviously this is a unique passage of scripture; the only one that describes the immediate fate of the dead. Many Christians do not believe it is literal, but they can't give a satisfactory answer as to why Jesus would tell of such a horrible fate for the unrepentant if it is not true as he said. And I can't see any other reason but to install a great fear. But would Jesus install a great fear of something that happens to no one? Maybe you have an attic ladder and can tell your children if they have any ideas about climbing it into the attic that the boogeyman up there will take them, but would it be right to tell them any such thing?
One thing I definitely don't buy is that, in the times I've heard a speaker preach about this, he has always put up a 'disclaimer' that he doesn't want to preach on it, and usually goes further than that and says he'd rather preach about "anything else" than that subject. It makes for a lot of sermons for one that none wants to preach. But the really hard-to-believe part is they always (as far as I can recall) say they're "not trying to scare anybody." I will put it plain and say I think they're lying. Whether literally true or not, what is the purpose of proclaiming this? One guy said "I'm not trying to scare you-- I'm just trying to let you know you're gonna die and go to one of two places!" What a difference! -- irony meant not between the two places, but between scaring and letting the hearer know.
Anyway, here are some observations I have developed over the years about this:
Neither God nor the devil is mentioned.
The poor man, Lazarus, was said to be taken by the angels; burial is not mentioned.
The rich man was buried, then lifted his eyes from Hades.
Abraham gives no reason for their different fates other than one was rich (and implicitly greedy), and one was poor (and implicitly spent his time begging).
Abraham seemed to be 'in charge' of what happens and what doesn't.
The rich man has no hope, yet he is concerned about those close to him on earth who are most likely headed to where he is. There is silence as to whether Lazarus had such concern for anyone-- or what he thought about anything.
The big irony (to me): Abraham was a rich man, or at least he came to be, who had many "good things" in the world, but that is his explanation to the rich man of why he is in torment.
Questions:
Can anyone be rich, per se, and expect to enter life? Remember not only the "easier for a camel to walk through the eye of a needle" precept, but also how "rich" and "poor" are relative, and the average American in the USA is rich compared to a clear majority of the world population.
Is it valid and acceptable to God for a Christian to put a lot of money into retirement accounts instead of giving all that same money to 'the poor?'
If we are 'paradise-bound,' will we be carried by angels and comforted by Abraham? Or has he been superseded in that job?
Is going to paradise literal, is torment in hades literal, or is one or the the other literal?
Finally, if Luke 16:19-31 is not literal, what is the meaning or it all? Why did Jesus tell such a story?
One thing I definitely don't buy is that, in the times I've heard a speaker preach about this, he has always put up a 'disclaimer' that he doesn't want to preach on it, and usually goes further than that and says he'd rather preach about "anything else" than that subject. It makes for a lot of sermons for one that none wants to preach. But the really hard-to-believe part is they always (as far as I can recall) say they're "not trying to scare anybody." I will put it plain and say I think they're lying. Whether literally true or not, what is the purpose of proclaiming this? One guy said "I'm not trying to scare you-- I'm just trying to let you know you're gonna die and go to one of two places!" What a difference! -- irony meant not between the two places, but between scaring and letting the hearer know.
Anyway, here are some observations I have developed over the years about this:
Neither God nor the devil is mentioned.
The poor man, Lazarus, was said to be taken by the angels; burial is not mentioned.
The rich man was buried, then lifted his eyes from Hades.
Abraham gives no reason for their different fates other than one was rich (and implicitly greedy), and one was poor (and implicitly spent his time begging).
Abraham seemed to be 'in charge' of what happens and what doesn't.
The rich man has no hope, yet he is concerned about those close to him on earth who are most likely headed to where he is. There is silence as to whether Lazarus had such concern for anyone-- or what he thought about anything.
The big irony (to me): Abraham was a rich man, or at least he came to be, who had many "good things" in the world, but that is his explanation to the rich man of why he is in torment.
Questions:
Can anyone be rich, per se, and expect to enter life? Remember not only the "easier for a camel to walk through the eye of a needle" precept, but also how "rich" and "poor" are relative, and the average American in the USA is rich compared to a clear majority of the world population.
Is it valid and acceptable to God for a Christian to put a lot of money into retirement accounts instead of giving all that same money to 'the poor?'
If we are 'paradise-bound,' will we be carried by angels and comforted by Abraham? Or has he been superseded in that job?
Is going to paradise literal, is torment in hades literal, or is one or the the other literal?
Finally, if Luke 16:19-31 is not literal, what is the meaning or it all? Why did Jesus tell such a story?