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Featured Many Means All??

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by Reformed1689, Feb 3, 2021.

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  1. atpollard

    atpollard Well-Known Member

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    Hmmm ...
    :)
     
  2. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    The verse is talking about the contrast of the singular actions. One transgression condemned one action/sacrifice redeemed. That's the point of this verse.
     
  3. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    That is a categorical confusion. It could be all the offences of the saved in one place, and all of mankind in another place.
    The Calvinists brethren are the ones so apt at making world mean all of the elect only in John 3:16, remember?
     
  4. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    The many in Romans 5:16. All, or some, of the offences?
     
  5. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    And again you lie about the position. We did not, or at least I did not, in that thread say the word world meant the elect.
     
  6. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    That's not what it is dealing with.
     
  7. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    Maybe you did not. The "we" did. For an entire thread.
    Very quick on the accusational trigger.
     
  8. George Antonios

    George Antonios Well-Known Member

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    The many of Romans 5:16. All offences, or some offences?
     
  9. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    did you check the Greek grammar images I posted? If you seriously want to learn what the Bible actually teaches, these works will help you. the Bible and not theology should be our Guide!
     
  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    The problem with those you pick certain verses for their "theories", then purposely ignore those that are against what the believe.
     
  11. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    I don't think the "we" did. I read the thread over and over when it was going hot.
     
  12. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Not everything comes from Greek Grammars and definitions in isolation. That is your amateurish downfall.
     
  13. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    the honest Christian, who has no theological point to prove or support, will see this for what it says. that here MANY means EVERY SINGLE ONE. Otherwise we have the absurdity that the whole human race did not fall in Adam, only the "elect" did!
     
  14. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Some, not all, but that doesn't mean what you are going to twist it to mean. It qualifies by the very nature of the sacrifice which offenses get covered by forgiveness. No offenses are justified though, let's make that clear.
     
  15. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Can someone please fix the record player?
     
    • Funny Funny x 1
  16. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    I think that you bluff when you say that you know Hebrew and Greek, at least at the higher, grammatical level. Because your responses are really silly! When people are serious about Bible translations, one of the main things that they have, is a very good grammar of the original language.
     
  17. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Yes, we need another song than the Reformed favorite, "lets twist again", as in the Scriptures! :Roflmao
     
  18. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    you jest! so you are saying, that "For if through the offence of one the many be dead", means SOME??? So only SOME died in Adam? Your theology is that of a kid!
     
  19. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    I never said otherwise.
     
  20. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Not everyone dies an eternal death so no, it is not saying all. It says many as in a great number. Some have eternal life, many actually. Some of the population of earth die, some live. It's not hard.
     
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