Both of you use the bible, why can't you come to a mutual agreement? Is there somethig wrong?
I have placed these texts before SBM several times and not once has he ever had a contextual based response.
Just simple English "worketh not BUT believeth" demostrate Paul is contrasting "beleiveth" with works.
Just simple Enlgish "without works" demands works are being excluded from what is said to be obtained by "faith" "his faith is counted for righteousness....righteousness is imputed without works.
The phrase "without works" has contextual reference to Abraham who lived 430 years before the Law of Moses.
Paul systematically asserts justifiation is by faith and in verses 1-8 is without works; in verses 9-12 justification by faith is without personal obedience to ceremonial ordinances such as circumcision; verses 13-15 justification by faith is without law keeping; verse 16 that justification by faith is "of grace"; verses 14-21 justification by faith is without active participation by Abraham but is a product of the promise and power of God which faith simply receives. Abraham and Sarah's body is regarded as "dead" in regard to active participation in obtaining justification.
Rom. 4:21 And
being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.
Here is the contextual definition of "faith" by Paul in this context - "being fully persuaded" in what God promised, God was also able to perform - hence without works, regardless how you define works (personal actions ; obedience to ceremonial ordinances, obedience to God's Law, personal participation with God).
Faith merely RECEIVES and RESTS upon the PROMISE and POWER of God. The gospel provides the promise and the Holy Spirit provides the power.