Why continue to misrepresent my view? Did I say Ephesians 2:3 said we were made sinners? Nope, it says we are by nature children of wrath. Romans 5:18-19 says all men were condemned, made sinners.
1 Peter 1:18 is just another verse you drag into the conversation in a vain effort to muddy the water. The NASB renders the phrase, futile way of life inherited from your forefathers. We have three enemies, Satan, our corrupt flesh, and the world with its futile and ungodly value system. No one is saying we are not tempted and we did not sin knowingly and unknowingly. That is all true, but does not alter the fact we were made sinners, separated from our holy God. Your effort is to prove "A" (we sin during our lifetime) and claim you have proved "b" we were not made sinners, we are not by nature children of wrath, and we were not conceived in iniquity.
Psalm 51:5 says we were conceived in iniquity, not Romans 5:18. Thus a strawman argument to say Romans 5:18 does not say what Psalm 51:5 says. Romans 5:18 says we were condemned through the sin of Adam. And it is utterly false to say my view leads to Universalism. The many in Adam is not the same group at the many in Christ. Two different groups. Here you are simply manufacturing a non-existent problem to disparage my view.
Then you again repeat, that Adam's sin was imputed to the many. And again, I said the consequence of Adam's sin resulted in the many being conceived in iniquity, being by nature children of wrath, and being made sinners, therefore being separated from God.
As I have said many times, mistaken views are based on (1) speculation rather than a minimalist approach to stick with what is actually said, and (2) shoddy bible study using liberal, i.e. loose and approximate, understandings of scripture.
Psa 51:5 does not say WE were conceived in iniquity, it says DAVID was conceived in iniquity. It does not say David or anybody else was born a sinner. In fact, it is easily observed that David is speaking of his mother, not himself in this verse.
Your understanding of Psa 51:5 completely contradicts what David has just said in the first 4 verses.
Psa 51:1 To the chief Musician, A Psalm of David, when Nathan the prophet came unto him, after he had gone in to Bathsheba. Have mercy upon me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness: according unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions.
2 Wash me throughly from mine iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin.
3 For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin is ever before me.
4 Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight: that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou judgest.
5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.
This Psalm was David's confession after he had committed adultery with Bathsheba. He repeatedly admits his guilt in the first four verses.
In your view, David suddenly changes course in verse 5, and now claims that it is his mother's fault he had committed this sin. He was born a sinner and he MUST sin, he is COMPELLED to sin by his nature received from his mother.
You see, that makes no sense at all, and is not a confession of guilt. It is passing the buck, blaming his mother for his own personal sin. It would deny his own personal guilt in this matter. Your view is nonsensical.
David is simply saying he was born into a sinful world. This is how the Jews themselves interpreted this verse for over 1400 years until Augustine came along and claimed it supported Original Sin.
Verse 5 is not even describing David, but his mother, it says in sin did his mother conceive him. His mother did the conceiving, not David.
So again, VERY SHODDY Bible interpretation on your part.
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