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When is revision necessary?

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Rippon

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So we use the word 'brethren,' which can incorporate both male and female- unless of course you think that there are no women in the Plymouth Brethren.
You and yours may continue to use the word brethren with understanding that it is an exclusive term. But in many regions and age groups within English speaking countries (including the UK) it has the connotation of just men.
 

Rippon

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Psalm 24:3-5

'Who may ascend the mountain of the Lord?
Who may stand in his holy place?
The one who has clean hands and a pure heart,
who does not trust in an idol
or swear by a false god.
They will receive blessing from the Lord
and vindication from God their Saviour.’
Verse 6: "Such purity characterizes the people who seek his favor, Jacob's descendants, who pray to him." (NET)
"Such is the generation of those who seek him, who seek your face, God of Jacob." (NIV)
I believe that these verses are about the Lord Jesus Christ. Who among us can say, “Yes, my hands are clean and my heart pure. I can stand before God with absolute confidence”? No, no. It is only Christ who could say that. But by switching from singular to plural in verse 5, not only does the reading jar horribly, but the reference to our Lord is obscured.
I believe I have answered your concerns by simply citing Scripture in context above.
 

Smyth

Active Member
Quoting from Ben Witherington's article : The Problem With Literalism When It Comes To Translation


The problem with people who don't like literal translations is they want to change the message of the Bible.

[Aside from adelphos], there are other words, which are used in the singular, which are masculine gender words which in fact refer to a woman! For example, take the reference to Phoebe in Romans 16:1 who is called both 'our sister' (adelphen) and a deacon (daikon). Not a female form of the word deacon, but rather the male form. So, apparently Paul does not have a problem with using a masculine noun in the singular of a woman any more than he has a problem with using a plural masculine noun like 'brothers' of both 'brothers and sisters'.

You won't answer my question of why the NIV prior to 2011 just says brothers. I explained why it matters more than once, but maybe it's above your head.

"Phebe our sister, which is a servant.": Your quoted song and dance (which is a nice way of saying your b......) to defend the translation of adelphos to sister is mocked and undercut by the very verse you refer to because it uses adelphe for sister.

Rippon, do you think there's a masculine form of "sister", which still means sister? You can't use a masculine form of sister because then it no longer means sister. Servant means servant, regardless gender. So, your analogy with servant is inapplicable.

If what you quoted is accurate, that Paul uses a masculine form of servant, then I conclude that the gender of servant in the verse in question has nothing to do with the sex of Phebe. Paul is referring to a position without regard to Phebe. Else, can you explain why Paul didn't use a feminine of servant, if such a thing was available and applicable?




 

Rippon

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"Phebe our sister, which is a servant."
NIV: "I commend to you our sister Phoebe, a deacon of the church in Cenchraea."
the translation of adelphos to sister is mocked and undercut by the very verse you refer to because it uses adelphe for sister.

Get it straight. It's adelphen, not adelphe.
 

John of Japan

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Wow, there's been a lot of activity on this thread since I was able to post. Apparently I hit a nerve.

I just want to ask that we keep the thread on the OP, which is the necessity of revision. Thank you.
 

John of Japan

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But "let" even in contemporary Modern English can mean "prevent" or "hinder."

I was a tennis player when I was young. A "let" is when the served ball strikes the net but continues over to the other player's court. It means the net "hindered" or "prevented" the completion of a legal serve. :)
Yes, but "let" retains the meaning of "hinder" in that one, very limited context of tennis. I don't think that applies to Bible translation.
And I agree. There was no need for 200 new English translations in the 20th century. But different languages evolve (or devolve, as with English) at different rates. (The KJV may have been instrumental is slowing such changes in the English language.)
I agree about the KJV hindering such changes. It has had a huge impact on the English language. C. S. Lewis had a great little book about that, The Literary Impact of the Authorized Version.
Every couple hundred years a modest revision would probably be sufficient for the major languages. :)
That's my view, too.
 

John of Japan

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I think I disagree. The Spanish Reina Valera version is actually older than the KJV. I don't know too much of its history, but it was revised in 1909 and again in 1961. The Trinitarian Bible Society is in the throes of producing another revision. It remains SFAIK the leading Bible version in the Spanish language.
There is a good book about this very subject by Calvin George, The History of the Reina-Valera 1960 Spanish Bible. From his first chapter, "Why it was Felt that the 1909 Revision Needed to be Revised," I would say that the Spanish language had some more serious changes in Biblical terminology than the English language of the same time period. However, since I don't speak Spanish I'll have to let it go at that.

But this brings up another reason some revisions take place. According to George, "There were some departures from the Textus Receptus in the 1960" (p. 120). Apparently the 1960 version did not depart sufficiently from the TR to be based on a critical Greek text, but still, oftentimes revisions are made which either depend somewhat or completely on a different text. The idea is that the TR or Byzantine is outmoded and needs to be corrected. IMO, such changes are usually unneeded and unnecessarily muddy the waters.

I suggest that if the KJV had been revised every 50 years or so, it might still be the leading English language version and we might have been spared some of the junk currently on the market.
I'm not sure the junk would not have appeared. Most of the new versions are based on a critical text, and that is the reason given for the new translation. People just have to meddle! ;)

I would like to see a revision of the NKJV sometime soon. It is my favourite version but the are some improvements that could be made. Also, who says "behold" these days?
It is not used in colloquial English, but does appear often in the commercial world and is widely understood. Just Google the word. There is a "Behold" furniture polish, a "Behold" visual image search engine (behold.cc), numerous book titles on Amazon with the word in the title, etc.
 

John of Japan

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John, you're only considering one aspect; changes in the English language.

Consider that revisions also include changes in the way we understand the original languages.
Good point. If you are referring to Stanley Porter's view of verbal aspect, most Greek profs feel he is too radical. However, there have been advances in that specific area. The most recent advances in this area have changed the way we teach Greek.
And consider the effects of rapid technological changes.
The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg in 1440 encouraged a proliferation of translators to produce translations.
The development of digitalization has allowed new opportunities.
The digitalization of ancient texts has opened vast libraries of information inspiring new discoveries in semantics and linguistics.
But those capable of understanding and using those advances remain few in number. Your point says to me not that new revisions are necessary, but that people who are poorly educated in the original languages are now fooled into thinking they can revise the Bible into their own understanding and do it right. Two examples of this idiocy are the Cepher Bible and the Preterist Bible.
I've heard that the separation between a scholarly understanding of the scriptures and the laity is about 100 years (some people today still use Matthew Henry's Commentaries) .
Rapid communication across limitless distances insures that new ideas will proliferate swiftly not only among scholars but among interested and educated laity.
Not only has technology opened access to sources but it has allowed a broader audience to participate.

Rob
The "broader audience" can only participate in Bible translation or revision if they are willing to put in the 1000s of hours necessary to learn the original languages. Most will not do that. So what we have now (including an occasional denizen of the BB--but not you :)) are people who get a little knowledge (a dangerous thing) and then think they are experts on Bible translation. :Rolleyes
 

John of Japan

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The problem with people who don't like literal translations is they want to change the message of the Bible.

You won't answer my question of why the NIV prior to 2011 just says brothers. I explained why it matters more than once, but maybe it's above your head.

"Phebe our sister, which is a servant.": Your quoted song and dance (which is a nice way of saying your b......) to defend the translation of adelphos to sister is mocked and undercut by the very verse you refer to because it uses adelphe for sister.

Rippon, do you think there's a masculine form of "sister", which still means sister? You can't use a masculine form of sister because then it no longer means sister. Servant means servant, regardless gender. So, your analogy with servant is inapplicable.

If what you quoted is accurate, that Paul uses a masculine form of servant, then I conclude that the gender of servant in the verse in question has nothing to do with the sex of Phebe. Paul is referring to a position without regard to Phebe. Else, can you explain why Paul didn't use a feminine of servant, if such a thing was available and applicable?
I have Rippon on ignore (which is possible to temporarily bypass in this software), but I see you have included his quote from Witherington, who is a leading scholar but not in Greek. At any rate, you have hit a homerun with this post.

(1) Witherington gets the word wrong. It is not diakon in that passage but diakonon, the accusative singular. (2) The word has no feminine form, as you have noted. (3) It is perfectly permissible in koine Greek to use a masculine noun form (but not an adj.) to refer to a female, as in "tentmakers" (Acts 18:3) referring to Aquila and Priscilla, or a feminine noun form to refer to a male, as in aparxe ("firstfruits") referring to a man in Rom. 16:5. This usage by no means changes the possible gender of the noun being referred to, as Witherington suggests.(4) The TNIV rendering of "brothers and sisters" is an effort to force modern values into an ancient text, a great error in literary translation.

Watch for Rippon, who has no Greek training whatsoever, now to excoriate me with his usual insults and personal attacks (something he does at the slightest hint that the TNIV is in error), which I will happily ignore.
 
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John of Japan

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...Witherington, who is a leading scholar but not in Greek. At any rate, you have hit a homerun with this post.
My son has corrected me in that Witherington has written exegetical commentaries and is thus expert in Greek. That fact, then, makes his Greek blunder the more strange.
 

Van

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I can remember typing an article on a type writer. If changes to improve it occurred to me (or were brought to my attention) I would be reluctant to type the whole thing over. But now with computers, we can delete, added, or change to our hearts content. Rather than less updates or revisions, we are going to see more.

I think it would be rather easy to radically improve all English translations by being as consistent as possible in translating each source language word meaning into one English word or phrase. Next, we could eliminate or limit to the extent possible, overlap where the same English word or phrase is used to translate different source language words. When the translations do this (for example use Hell for both Hades and Gehenna) we obliterate the distinction drawn in the inspired text.

Since the modern translations can be radically improved, why not do it? Why tolerate a lack of transparency and correspondence. Why hide the inspired word? Why not make full use of the digital revolution?
 

Van

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Most would agree, revision is needed to correct mistakes. The problem is one person's mistake is another person's truth.

My view is all modern translations and the KJV are full of mistakes and need revision to improve correspondence and transparency.

Any bible based on the TR needs to be revised according to the MT. Thus the NKJV needs revision.

Monogenes means one of a kind, not begotten. Any bible translating monogenes as begotten needs revision. Thus the NASB needs revision.

We can find mistake after mistake in the NIV and ESV, , thus they both need revision.

Why is it that none of them translate the same source word meaning into one English word or phrase consistently. Examples of proper translation can be found, so the process is not beyond the translators ability in the digital age.

For the umpteenth time, every translation translates a given word differently in different places because no one English word has exactly the same meaning. Lets say a Greek word means destroy or render powerless. By looking at the context, we could use one English word or phrase to convey "destroy" when the context indicates that is the meaning intended, and we could use "rendered powerless" when the context indicates that is the intended meaning. So we have one Greek word with two meanings, and we have two English words or phrases to convey those two meanings.

In the case of the Greek word meaning selfish ambition, we have the same translation render it 3or 4 different ways, when the context pointed to the same meaning. Now "selfish ambition" may not be the best rendering, perhaps selfishness better captures the idea of someone pushing their own agenda rather than Christ's agenda. But there is no need to turn one meaning into several meanings such as rivalry or hostility or strife.
 

Smyth

Active Member
My view is all modern translations and the KJV are full of mistakes and need revision to improve correspondence and transparency.

I don't think you understand the difference between a mistake and a difference of judgement. Everyone agrees that mistakes should be fixed. Your argument is that every Bible should be changed to agree with you.

In the case of the Greek word meaning selfish ambition, we have the same translation render it 3or 4 different ways, when the context pointed to the same meaning. Now "selfish ambition" may not be the best rendering, perhaps selfishness better captures the idea of someone pushing their own agenda rather than Christ's agenda. But there is no need to turn one meaning into several meanings such as rivalry or hostility or strife.

What if the word means to cause strife through selfish ambition?
 
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