FTR, I have had a Strong's Concordance since 1969, which is now literally falling apart, and acquired a second one around 2002 or so.
I have also had both Thayer's and Wigram's Lexicons, both Machen's and Dana and Mantey's Greek Grammars, and the UBS Greek New Testament, 2nd Edition since 1969, as well.
And now I have had the Greek New Testament According to the Majority Text, for some 20 years, in addition.
And these that I have, are all in "hard copy".
That said, I have virtually no doubt that there are hundreds of Baptist Board members who could "chew me up, and spit me out" without even beginning to satisfy any hunger, over my limited knowledge of the Greek language (and frankly, IMO, "pick their teeth" with the apparent knowledge of the Greek language displayed by some others, perhaps even on this thread), for I am not, nor have I ever claimed to be, a Greek scholar, in any way.
(Anyone who recognizes any more Hebrew on sight, than the letter "Aleph", would surpass me in Hebrew knowledge.)
However, the late James Strong, D.D. does not happen to be one of these 'Greek surpassers" on the BB, especially since he long since departed this earthly life on Aug. 7, 1894, over 113 years ago.
Nor did James Strong do any translation of a Bible version, to my knowledge, unlike his almost life-long contemporary, the late Robert Young, both of whom were born in 1822 about a month apart. (Robert Young died at the age of 66 in 1888, six years before did Strong, with Young's demise, no doubt somewhat hastened by his residence in the cold Scottish environment of Edinburgh.) Young's Literal Translation was published in 1862, and remains to this day, an very good translation of the Bible, IMO.
Both of these individuals produced extraordinary efforts in an English concordance, that have, IMO, yet to be surpassed, even after a century.
However, I now have two questions specifically addressed to Brother Bob.
The first question is, "Do you happen to possess a copy of Strong's Concordance, since that seems to be your favorite source for Greek (and Hebrew & Chaldee/Aramaic) information?" I really would like to know the answer to this, just to satisfy my own curiosity.
The second question is, Whether or not you own one in "hard copy", have you ever taken the time to read the PREFACE(s) to the Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries, and the PLAN OF THE BOOK to the same dictionaries? Since it appears to me that you have not, or did not catch the gist of the work, I shall here take the liberty of including some quotes, about the volume, from the actual volume itself. One might say that this was "originally 'posted' by James Strong, S.T.D., LL.D., (1890)"
:laugh:
This is entirely consistent with what I have said before, as have others, only not in as many words.
Frankly, I see little need to paste, 'er I mean post, something from Strong's concordance three different times, so far; what Spurgeon has said three different times; and what a preacher from PA has said four times in one thread. I understood it all the first time. How correct any and all these (in the same vein as the rest of us), are or are not, is debatable. But there is no need for the redundancy, at least for my benefit.
I shall bow out of this thread, at least for now, for anything more I might add, here would itself be redundant, and I see little need to contribute to that.
Peace,
Ed
I have also had both Thayer's and Wigram's Lexicons, both Machen's and Dana and Mantey's Greek Grammars, and the UBS Greek New Testament, 2nd Edition since 1969, as well.
And now I have had the Greek New Testament According to the Majority Text, for some 20 years, in addition.
And these that I have, are all in "hard copy".
That said, I have virtually no doubt that there are hundreds of Baptist Board members who could "chew me up, and spit me out" without even beginning to satisfy any hunger, over my limited knowledge of the Greek language (and frankly, IMO, "pick their teeth" with the apparent knowledge of the Greek language displayed by some others, perhaps even on this thread), for I am not, nor have I ever claimed to be, a Greek scholar, in any way.
(Anyone who recognizes any more Hebrew on sight, than the letter "Aleph", would surpass me in Hebrew knowledge.)
However, the late James Strong, D.D. does not happen to be one of these 'Greek surpassers" on the BB, especially since he long since departed this earthly life on Aug. 7, 1894, over 113 years ago.
Nor did James Strong do any translation of a Bible version, to my knowledge, unlike his almost life-long contemporary, the late Robert Young, both of whom were born in 1822 about a month apart. (Robert Young died at the age of 66 in 1888, six years before did Strong, with Young's demise, no doubt somewhat hastened by his residence in the cold Scottish environment of Edinburgh.) Young's Literal Translation was published in 1862, and remains to this day, an very good translation of the Bible, IMO.
Both of these individuals produced extraordinary efforts in an English concordance, that have, IMO, yet to be surpassed, even after a century.
However, I now have two questions specifically addressed to Brother Bob.
The first question is, "Do you happen to possess a copy of Strong's Concordance, since that seems to be your favorite source for Greek (and Hebrew & Chaldee/Aramaic) information?" I really would like to know the answer to this, just to satisfy my own curiosity.
The second question is, Whether or not you own one in "hard copy", have you ever taken the time to read the PREFACE(s) to the Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries, and the PLAN OF THE BOOK to the same dictionaries? Since it appears to me that you have not, or did not catch the gist of the work, I shall here take the liberty of including some quotes, about the volume, from the actual volume itself. One might say that this was "originally 'posted' by James Strong, S.T.D., LL.D., (1890)"
:laugh:
I will add that the specific uses of the +, x, and * [degree (Hebrew)] signs, and the () (parenthesis), [] (brackets), and italics, all convey specific information that can be found on p.6, in both Dictionaries, as well, under the category of "SIGNS EMPLOYED", as well as the import of ""ABBREVIATIONS EMPLOYED" which is also to be found on p.6, are germane to any legitimate attempt to use Strong's in any correct manner, as opposed to merely "cut and paste" from an on-line source, that may seem to support one's position, out of context. I have given emphasis above to important points, IMO.
This is entirely consistent with what I have said before, as have others, only not in as many words.
Frankly, I see little need to paste, 'er I mean post, something from Strong's concordance three different times, so far; what Spurgeon has said three different times; and what a preacher from PA has said four times in one thread. I understood it all the first time. How correct any and all these (in the same vein as the rest of us), are or are not, is debatable. But there is no need for the redundancy, at least for my benefit.
I shall bow out of this thread, at least for now, for anything more I might add, here would itself be redundant, and I see little need to contribute to that.
Peace,
Ed
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