As a believer, I have read the KJV over 50 years,
accepting and believing it to be what it actually is.
I esteem the KJV highly as being a good overall English Bible translation.
I have not condemned anyone for reading and accepting the KJV
as what it actually is as I still do.
Gesundheit.
"
Gesundheit was borrowed from German, where it literally means "health";
it was formed by a combination of gesund ("healthy") and -heit ("-hood").
(Alan So, "Healthy-hood".
"Wishing a person good health when they sneezed
was traditionally believed to forestall the illness that a sneeze often portends.
"What does
Gesundheit mean literally?
"
Gesundheit is
an interjection used to wish good health to someone who has just sneezed.
"It comes from German, where it means, literally, health,
(Alan "Health!"
"and in German it is used as the equivalent of the English
"God bless you" or bless you."
(Alan There we have "God bless you".
QUESTION: So, in an English translation from the German,
would we translate:
"Gesundheit", as being
"Healthy-hood"?,
"Health"?, or
"God bless you"?
Any of those?
Do (Have)
"Healthy-hood"?, (Have)
"Health"? sound cool enough?
What about,
"God bless you"?
Wouldn't that be even more cool and on point?
Wouldn't
"God bless you" be just perfectly apprepo and 'kosher' and acceptable?
If so, what would happen with those words, "perfectly apprepo" and 'kosher' and "acceptable",
in the event that "Gesundheit" was translated into an English version of the Bible?
Would it then be found to be of preeminent necessity that the wording be resorted back to,
(Have) "Healthy-hood"?, (Have) "Health"?, or some other words similar to them, to avoid
using the word "God" in the Bible, at any and all costs???
The word "God" Θεός (Theos) is not in the source language German word "Gesundheit"!
SO, YOU CAN'T USE IT!!! GOD FORBID!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
"Gesundheit" doesn't even have the word, "Ζεύς (Zeus)",
or anything close to it, in the German, does it now?
Is that anything like what you mean by this comment?
Perhaps you are being the critic of the KJV by
trying to make claims for it
that are not true and that are not taught in Scripture.
Have I been "trying to make claims for it" (the KJV)
"that are not true and that are not taught in Scripture"?
Where I've said that "God forbid" is the definition
that the Oxford Greek Dictionary gives, for μὴ γένοιτο (mē genoito)?
And that "God forbid" is the proper translation for the Greek meaning "God forbid"
from any number of other sources, including each English translation of the Bible,
back to Tyndale's, 498 years ago?
Geneva Bible of 1587
"What then? shall we sinne,
because we are not vnder the Law, but vnder grace? God forbid."
Bishops' Bible of 1568
"What then? Shall we sinne,
because we are not vnder the lawe, but vnder grace? God forbyd."
Coverdale Bible of 1535
"How then? Shal we synne,
because we are not vnder ye lawe, but vnder grace? God forbyd."
Tyndale Bible of 1526
"What then? Shall we synne
because we are not vnder the lawe: but vnder grace? God forbyd."
...
What about
blime?
English[edit]
Etymology[edit]
From
God blind me
- 1904, Jack London, chapter 4, in The Sea-Wolf
- (Macmillan’s Standard Library), New York, N.Y.: Grosset & Dunlap, →OCLC:
"Gawd blime me if you ayn't a slob. Wot're you good for anyw'y, I'd like to know?
- Eh? Wot're you good for anyw'y? Cawn't even carry a bit of tea aft without losin' it.
- Now I'll 'ave to boil some more.
Is that going to be an issue, too, if it was translated into an English Bible,
where it WOULD HAVE TO BE RENDERED ANYTHING
BUT
"GOD!", or
"Oh God!", etc., etc.??? ...Not even,
"Gawd!"?
...
The KJV was simply a different translation from the previous English translation.
ABSOLUTELY ON POINT.