Then lets take a look at Romans 5:19, " For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous." Now this is what I said concerning this verse:
"Did Christ's death make anyone righteous? Nope. His death provides the promise that many will be made righteous, when God credits their faith as righteousness and transfers them spiritually into Christ. That is when they undergo the circumcision of Christ and are made righteous."
I was addressing the timing, but you edited it to make it appear as a blanket statement. And you have repeated this fallacious argument rather than address our real difference, i.e. the timing of when Christ death makes people righteous.
Folks, this is all you get from Calvinism, mistaken interpretation of verses such as Romans 5:19, followed by personal attacks on those who differ.
Brother Van,
Laying aside Romans 5:19, there are so many others verses of scripture that teach so much was actually, not potentially, accomplished by the atonement that it must only be applicable to the elect, otherwise there would be nobody in Hell. Consider all the following verses/thoughs-
Scripture teaches us the atonement was more than just a pardon, but in fact a substitutionary atonement, thus it must be limited. Peter declares, "24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed". If
our sins were already "bore" and we our "healed" by his stripes, God cannot than make someone "bore" their own sins again and "unheal" them.
Moreover, Jesus was said to actually have been literally "made sin" on behalf of those he died for. We read, "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin" (1 Corinthians 5:21a). He poured out the wrath of God on his son by forsaking him on the cross, thus he cannot pour out his wrath again on those he died for.
Further, the word "ransom" is also used in scripture in reference to the atonement, "For even the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many" (Mark 10:45).
God would not be just to collect a ransom two times-one on Calvary and once on the sinner by sending them to Hell.
Finally, the atonement could not apply to all men because of what scripture tells us it actually accomplished (not potentially accomplished). The Bible has many passages of scripture that makes this undeniably clear-
"For by one offering he hath
perfected for ever them that are sanctified" (Hebrews 10:14)
"For if, when we were enemies,
we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life" (Romans 5:10)
"Much more then, being now
justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him." (Romans 5:9)
"
Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:" (Galatians 3:13)
"In whom we have
redemption through his blood,
the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace" (Ephesians 1:7)
"By the which will we are
sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all." (Hebrews 10:10)
Thus according to the scriptures above, the atonement accomplished perfection (our position before God), reconciliation, justification, redeemed us, forgave us our sins, and sanctified us (i.e. set us apart) before God, therefore how could it possibly apply to every human being who ever lived? It simply can't.
Brother Joe
