With Romans 8:1 you need to look at the preceding passage (since Romans 8:1 begins with "therefore"). Paul is discussing his sinning--how he does, indeed, sin, even as a Christian.
There is not condemnation for those in Christ (e.g. Christians) who, even now, sin. Why? Because Christ has suffered the condemnation for us.
This isn't so. Look, again, at the context of Romans 8.
Very wrong. It is precisely because the elect were in Christ before the foundation of the world that Christ had to die for them.
Christ substituted Himself for those "In Christ" so that while He was on the cross bearing the wrath of God being poured out on Him, it is as if we, the believers, were on the cross bearing the wrath of God. In this way, there is no condemnation for believers--because Christ has borne that condemnation for us.
Now, again, remember Paul's words to the believers in 1 Corinthians 6:
[9] Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, [10] nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. [11] And such were some of you. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God. (ESV, emphasis mine)
Paul affirms their sinfulness prior to Christ. He never says their sinfulness is or was OK. He affirms the absolute necessity for those "in Christ" to actually respond to the Gospel and show forth the fruit of repentance and faith in their lives.
But that's not what we see in Scripture, is it? We see the mission effort of Acts preaching the Gospel indiscriminately and we see those appointed to eternal life believing. So, those who are "in Christ," at some point, respond to the Gospel.
The "in Christ" part of the equation of salvation is only beneficial because Christ died. Being "in Christ" without His death is absolutely meaningless. There is only salvific force in the term "in Christ" because Christ died (as it was always planned for Him to do).
I really admire how you are trying to put the pieces together. However, I fear that you are taking this verse and that verse without being careful with the context. This taking of many verses without careful regard for context is leading you to make some leaps and jumps that are not proper.
This is why the study of Biblical Theology and Systematic Theology are so vitally important. In Biblical Theology, we do see a tension--referred to as "the already/not yet." For example: Christians are already saved, but not yet saved.
So, we are not saying that those "in Christ" have no condemnation. Properly understood, we are saying the removal of condemnation already took place at the cross (for those who are believers, those who are "in Christ") but the removal of condemnation has not yet taken place for those in Christ--until they respond in repentance and faith. Their response is guaranteed by being "in Christ," but the condemnation is not finally lifted until such time as they actually respond.
There is tension here (as there is throughout the Bible).
The Archangel