can One Be Charasmatic And NOT Be In Word of faith?

[evangelist-7]

Well, we can go back even futher than that!
Acts 2 is when the Holy Spirit was poured out...been here ever since...will be here until Christ returns!

Daaaaaah, dost thou meanest that He might just be "that which is perfect"?
WOW!
Guess not understanding this is da result of people blindly following the blind
(but only for 1800 years -- no biggie!).

No answer required ... you have bigger fish to fry.
BTW, notice how Jesus never mentioned the size of the fish on the beach fire?
And no frying pans, nothing ... gotta lick the cinders off ... Yuck.
.

 

[DHK]

You can not reconcile that with 1 Cor. 14! It is speaking to God! Praying in the spirit! I have always said it is a language! Just one the speaker himself does not know or understand unless God gives the interpretation!

Your perversion of the fourteenth chapter of 1 Corinthians is astounding.
"Speaking to God' is not speaking in tongues.
"Praying in the spirit" is not speaking in tongues.
Speaking in another language was always for the benefit of the entire congregation, never for ones own self, but for all in the church, just like every other spiritual gift was. The gift of languages was a gift to speak and understand a language that the person did not know before that time. That is why it was so miraculous. It is not the gibberish you speak.

The Holy Spirit is the interpreter!

Foolishness and contrary to the Word of God!!
1 Corinthians 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
--The Lord required interpreters in the church, not simply "the Holy Spirit."

Again, you can not reconcile that with scriptures on speaking in tongues anywhere except in Acts 2. That is the only example given where there were unbelieving Jews. The disciples in Acts 2 and 10 were magnifying God!

Every time tongues were spoken in the Book of Acts unbelieving Jews were present. Show me a case where they were not present.
It is not what they spoke that mattered. It is the fact that they spoke God's Word in another language. That was anathema to them. The Gentiles were as dirty dogs to the Jews. To hear them praise God, the God of Israel, in any other language but Hebrew, would be blasphemous.
Here it is:
1 Corinthians 14:21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
--It is a fulfillment of prophesy; a sign to the Jews.

Tongues was not used for evangalizing anywhere in scripture.

Where did I say it was?

Acts 2 it was Peter that did the preaching of the word-not tongues!

Who said it was? I didn't.

In Acts 10 it was Peter that proclaimed the gospel-not tongues! In Act 19 tongues was not used to preach! So scriptures again disproves your theory!

What theory. Tongues was a sign to the Jews. I never said they were to preach the gospel. Quote me if you can.
1. They were to edify believers in the church if there were those that did not have that particular language being spoken.
2. They were a sign to the Jews.
3. They were a sign for the apostles to authenticate them and their message.
4. They were a vehicle for revelation--a revelatory gift.
--The canon of revelation has ceased.
There are no more apostles today.
The Jews rejected the sign and judgment came upon them in 70 A.D., as prophesied. Therefore, by the end of the first century the gift had ceased. Only in 1905 did a fraudulent cheap imitation of the gift start up again. Even then there was demonic activity associated with it if you study it carefully enough.

How many times are you going to post the same thing over and over! I have agreed to the fact that without the interpretation we should not pray in the spirit in a gathering!

Since that is the only time speaking in languages is permitted then you shouldn't be speaking in tongues at all.
It also makes null and void your experience of speaking in gibberish which isn't speaking in tongues or languages. You don't know what you are saying. You could be cursing God and not knowing it.

 

[awaken]

Your perversion of the fourteenth chapter of 1 Corinthians is astounding.
"Speaking to God' is not speaking in tongues.
"Praying in the spirit" is not speaking in tongues.
Speaking in another language was always for the benefit of the entire congregation, never for ones own self, but for all in the church, just like every other spiritual gift was. The gift of languages was a gift to speak and understand a language that the person did not know before that time. That is why it was so miraculous. It is not the gibberish you speak.

Foolishness and contrary to the Word of God!!
1 Corinthians 14:27 If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.
28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
--The Lord required interpreters in the church, not simply "the Holy Spirit."

Every time tongues were spoken in the Book of Acts unbelieving Jews were present. Show me a case where they were not present.
It is not what they spoke that mattered. It is the fact that they spoke God's Word in another language. That was anathema to them. The Gentiles were as dirty dogs to the Jews. To hear them praise God, the God of Israel, in any other language but Hebrew, would be blasphemous.
Here it is:
1 Corinthians 14:21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
--It is a fulfillment of prophesy; a sign to the Jews.

Where did I say it was?

Who said it was? I didn't.

What theory. Tongues was a sign to the Jews. I never said they were to preach the gospel. Quote me if you can.
1. They were to edify believers in the church if there were those that did not have that particular language being spoken.
2. They were a sign to the Jews.
3. They were a sign for the apostles to authenticate them and their message.
4. They were a vehicle for revelation--a revelatory gift.
--The canon of revelation has ceased.
There are no more apostles today.
The Jews rejected the sign and judgment came upon them in 70 A.D., as prophesied. Therefore, by the end of the first century the gift had ceased. Only in 1905 did a fraudulent cheap imitation of the gift start up again. Even then there was demonic activity associated with it if you study it carefully enough.

Since that is the only time speaking in languages is permitted then you shouldn't be speaking in tongues at all.
It also makes null and void your experience of speaking in gibberish which isn't speaking in tongues or languages. You don't know what you are saying. You could be cursing God and not knowing it.

Again! DHK...stay in your unbelief about the manifestations!

 

[DHK]

Again! DHK...stay in your unbelief about the manifestations!

There is no such thing as "the manifestations." Please take an English course, and after that a theology course, but not from the Charismatics.
I assume you are referring to "the spiritual gifts" that were operative in the first century. Even if they were operative today, "gibberish" (the one that you exercise) is not one of them, and never has been. It has only been considered a part of "Christendom" since 1905. Before that it was only found in pagan religions, as I previously quoted to you.

 

[Thomas Helwys]

Well, we can go back even futher than that! Acts 2 is when the Holy Spirit was poured out...been here ever since...will be here until Christ returns!

That's not the point of contention, though, is it?

 

[awaken]

There is no such thing as "the manifestations." Please take an English course, and after that a theology course, but not from the Charismatics.
I assume you are referring to "the spiritual gifts" that were operative in the first century. Even if they were operative today, "gibberish" (the one that you exercise) is not one of them, and never has been. It has only been considered a part of "Christendom" since 1905. Before that it was only found in pagan religions, as I previously quoted to you.

Manifestation is in the Bible ..1 Corinthians 12:7 "But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal."
Divers kind of tongue is listed as one of those manifested. (Don't waste your typing skills to say divers is not in the original)

"For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto man but unto God:..."

"Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret"

"For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful."

"What is it then: I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also"

"Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified"

You can dance around those scriptures all day if you want! But speaking to God, spirit praying, pray with the spirit, bless, giving of thanks...sounds like talking to God to me...that is prayer! Case closed!

 

[awaken]

That's not the point of contention, though, is it?

Just addressing your post!:thumbsup:

 

[evangelist-7]

Case closed!

And if the case has been closed by the saint having the mostest patience of all, it should stay closed!

We're tired of this talk about tongues from one who knows less than nothing about them
(nor about the other 8 spiritual power gifts).

Hey, and guess what! ... This lack of understanding has nothing to do with salvation. WOW!
.

 

[DHK]

Manifestation is in the Bible ..1 Corinthians 12:7 "But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal."

Sure it's in the Bible. But you are ignorant of grammar and have continued to use it in your own existential occultic way, disregarding any true meaning. Let me demonstrate. First a dictionary definition:

World English Dictionary
manifestation (ˌmænɪfɛˈsteɪʃən) — n 1. the act of demonstrating; display: a manifestation of solidarity 2. the state of being manifested 3. an indication or sign 4. a public demonstration of feeling 5. the materialization of a disembodied spirit

Now, you said that I "don't believe in "the manifestations."
The statement is incomplete. "the manifestations" needs an object.
It is like saying I don't believe in the indications.
I don't believe in the demonstrations.
I don't believe in the feelings.
I don't believe in the materializations.
--Everyone of the above needs an object or they don't make sense.
I don't believe in the demonstrations of what??
I don't believe in what indications or signs?

I don't believe in what manifestations, or the manifestations of what?
Learn English; how to communicate!
The letter was written to the church at Corinth. The object of manifestation was understood. It stated the manifestation of the Spirit The subject here is "the gifts of the Spirit." The word "gifts" is omitted but understood in context.
Jamieson, Faucett and Brown:

7. But--Though all the gifts flow from the one God, Lord, and Spirit, the "manifestation" by which the Spirit acts (as He is hidden in Himself), varies in each individual.
to every man--to each of the members of the Church severally.
to profit withal--with a view to the profit of the whole body.

The subject is the gifts of the Spirit and how they are distributed to each of the members to the church at Corinth.
You have taken this verse and perverted its meaning.

Divers kind of tongue is listed as one of those manifested. (Don't waste your typing skills to say divers is not in the original)

1 Corinthians 12:10 and to another workings of miracles; and to another prophecy; and to another discerning of spirits; to another different kinds of languages; and to another the interpretation of languages. WEB
But you don't have a different kind of language; you have gibberish.
He is addressing the members of the church at Corinth, and these gifts were only to be used in the church at Corinth. They were different kinds of languages--Spanish, German, Arabic, Crete, etc. Which languages do you speak? How many different kinds of gibberish are there?

"For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto man but unto God:..."

This is a rebuke. The languages were spoken for the benefit of all in the church, or else they were to shut up. They were not to be spoken between you and God. This is what you don't get. If all that you are doing is speaking with God, of what use is that. It is not beneficial. It was for the benefit of the entire church, not a private selfish gift. The verse is a rebuke.

"Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret"

Then the person would have both gifts that would enable him to edify the entire church. If there was no interpretation he was to sit down and shut up.
1 Corinthians 14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
--This command is very clear.
No interpretation--then keep your silence.

"For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful."

If your understanding is unfruitful then keep quiet. You are not benefiting anyone, including yourself. The key throughout is understanding.

"What is it then: I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also"

Another rebuke. Paul says stop this nonsense. You are all speaking at the same time, causing chaos in the church.
Almost right after that rebuke Paul says:

1 Corinthians 14:18 I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:
19 Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue.
--He thanks the Lord that he speaks in tongues more then they do; he had a valid reason to, and they did not.
Then he immediately says that he would rather speak five words with understanding then ten thousand words (in tongues) because they have no understanding. 5/10,000: That is quite a contrast isn't it?

"Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest? For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified"

This was public and praying aloud in the congregation so that all may be edified. It was for the edification of all, not for one.

You can dance around those scriptures all day if you want! But speaking to God, spirit praying, pray with the spirit, bless, giving of thanks...sounds like talking to God to me...that is prayer! Case closed!

It was always for the edification for all in the congregation and never for the edification or prayer of one individual; never for private prayer.

 

[Yeshua1]

And if the case has been closed by the saint having the mostest patience of all, it should stay closed!

We're tired of this talk about tongues from one who knows less than nothing about them
(nor about the other 8 spiritual power gifts).

Hey, and guess what! ... This lack of understanding has nothing to do with salvation. WOW!
.

You do realise that DHK actually practices living out the ministry in power of the Holy Spirit, right?

That he teaches, preaches, see sould converted by that power, right?

That we ALL have the same amount of the holy sprit, that we EACH have a Gift from him to use for Chrsit, regardless charasmatic or not, right?

What would you have him. me the rest of us who are content to stay in the sure word of God in the bible do?

 

[awaken]

Sure it's in the Bible. But you are ignorant of grammar and have continued to use it in your own existential occultic way, disregarding any true meaning. Let me demonstrate. First a dictionary definition:

Now, you said that I "don't believe in "the manifestations."
The statement is incomplete. "the manifestations" needs an object.
It is like saying I don't believe in the indications.
I don't believe in the demonstrations.
I don't believe in the feelings.
I don't believe in the materializations.
--Everyone of the above needs an object or they don't make sense.
I don't believe in the demonstrations of what??
I don't believe in what indications or signs?

I don't believe in what manifestations, or the manifestations of what?
Learn English; how to communicate!
The letter was written to the church at Corinth. The object of manifestation was understood. It stated the manifestation of the Spirit The subject here is "the gifts of the Spirit." The word "gifts" is omitted but understood in context.
Jamieson, Faucett and Brown:

The subject is the gifts of the Spirit and how they are distributed to each of the members to the church at Corinth.
You have taken this verse and perverted its meaning.

1 Corinthians 12:10 and to another workings of miracles; and to another prophecy; and to another discerning of spirits; to another different kinds of languages; and to another the interpretation of languages. WEB
But you don't have a different kind of language; you have gibberish.
He is addressing the members of the church at Corinth, and these gifts were only to be used in the church at Corinth. They were different kinds of languages--Spanish, German, Arabic, Crete, etc. Which languages do you speak? How many different kinds of gibberish are there?

This is a rebuke. The languages were spoken for the benefit of all in the church, or else they were to shut up. They were not to be spoken between you and God. This is what you don't get. If all that you are doing is speaking with God, of what use is that. It is not beneficial. It was for the benefit of the entire church, not a private selfish gift. The verse is a rebuke.

Then the person would have both gifts that would enable him to edify the entire church. If there was no interpretation he was to sit down and shut up.
1 Corinthians 14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
--This command is very clear.
No interpretation--then keep your silence.

If your understanding is unfruitful then keep quiet. You are not benefiting anyone, including yourself. The key throughout is understanding.

Another rebuke. Paul says stop this nonsense. You are all speaking at the same time, causing chaos in the church.
Almost right after that rebuke Paul says:

1 Corinthians 14:18 I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:
19 Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding, that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue.
--He thanks the Lord that he speaks in tongues more then they do; he had a valid reason to, and they did not.
Then he immediately says that he would rather speak five words with understanding then ten thousand words (in tongues) because they have no understanding. 5/10,000: That is quite a contrast isn't it?

This was public and praying aloud in the congregation so that all may be edified. It was for the edification of all, not for one.

It was always for the edification for all in the congregation and never for the edification or prayer of one individual; never for private prayer.

Nothing new here?? WE DISAGREE AND WILL NEVER AGREE ON THIS! So for the sake of boring others I chose not to discuss this with you anymore!
It is simple! Speaking to God is prayer!

 

[Yeshua1]

Nothing new here?? WE DISAGREE AND WILL NEVER AGREE ON THIS! So for the sake of boring others I chose not to discuss this with you anymore!
It is simple! Speaking to God is prayer!

Are you feeling some type of conviction for how you are seeing those passages?

 

[awaken]

Are you feeling some type of conviction for how you are seeing those passages?

NO convition...Just tired of :BangHead: with DHK! We are not going to change each others belief.

 

[evangelist-7]

What would you have him. me the rest of us who are content to stay in the sure word of God in the bible do?

Only to be OPEN to what the Lord has for you.

Only to pray with sincerity that the Lord would bestow on you whatever gifts He desires.

But, it is difficult to get the baptism and some of the 9 spiritual power gifts,
if you harbor a lot of UNBELIEF about them.

However, God is not in a box anywhere ... and He does make exceptions!
.

 

[DHK]

NO convition...Just tired of :BangHead: with DHK! We are not going to change each others belief.

What is amazing is that every rebuke that is given, every word of condemnation that Paul gives, you turn it into words of encouragement and permission to speak in tongues, when Paul is saying the exact opposite.

For example, he uses an example of supposition.
The KJV is weak here:
1 Corinthians 14:16 Otherwise if you bless with the spirit, how will he who fills the place of the unlearned say the "Amen" at your giving of thanks, seeing he doesn't know what you say?
17 For you most assuredly give thanks well, but the other person is not built up.
--It is not "when" but "if." It is a supposition, a conjecture.
He is saying "Suppose you have a mean (either before or after the service), and someone is going to give thanks for the food in another language. If he is speaking in another language (when praying), how are the others going to know when to say "Amen" even if you are speaking very well in this other language.
Therefore don't do it. Don't speak in another language (tongues), when it is not necessary for you to do so. It only causes confusion.

The whole chapter is summarized in this one verse:
1 Corinthians 14:40 Let all things be done decently and in order.
Tongues caused chaos, and was not in order.

 

[awaken]

What is amazing is that every rebuke that is given, every word of condemnation that Paul gives, you turn it into words of encouragement and permission to speak in tongues, when Paul is saying the exact opposite.

No, I have said over and over that it is a rebuke book! But you go beyond that..you forbid what he said not too! "Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues."

For example, he uses an example of supposition.
The KJV is weak here:
1 Corinthians 14:16 Otherwise if you bless with the spirit, how will he who fills the place of the unlearned say the "Amen" at your giving of thanks, seeing he doesn't know what you say?
17 For you most assuredly give thanks well, but the other person is not built up.
--It is not "when" but "if." It is a supposition, a conjecture.
He is saying "Suppose you have a mean (either before or after the service), and someone is going to give thanks for the food in another language. If he is speaking in another language (when praying), how are the others going to know when to say "Amen" even if you are speaking very well in this other language.
Therefore don't do it. Don't speak in another language (tongues), when it is not necessary for you to do so. It only causes confusion.

I do not know why you keep bringing this up? I have always said do not speak in tongues in a gathering without the interpretation. THat was the correction!

What you miss out of that scripture is that the one that is speaking in tongues gives thanks well (giving thanks is praying). You debate that tongues is not praying...this scripture alone proves you wrong!

The whole chapter is summarized in this one verse:
1 Corinthians 14:40 Let all things be done decently and in order.
Tongues caused chaos, and was not in order.

Tongues without interpretation was out of order an added confusion! See you take away from the scriptures you only get out of that chapter what you want to prove your man-made theology! You left out how he set tongues in order in vs. 26-28. Not to mention vs. 39...which you have been doing ever since we started debating this issue!

 

[DHK]

No, I have said over and over that it is a rebuke book! But you go beyond that..you forbid what he said not too! "Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues."

In context, if you add on the words "in the first century" then you will have the meaning correct. It is not for today.

I do not know why you keep bringing this up? I have always said do not speak in tongues in a gathering without the interpretation. THat was the correction!

Don't ever speak in tongues without interpretation, which makes your gibberish totally out of line.

What you miss out of that scripture is that the one that is speaking in tongues gives thanks well (giving thanks is praying). You debate that tongues is not praying...this scripture alone proves you wrong!

The praying was proper. The praying in tongues was improper and rebuked because no one could understand it. You still don't get that do you? Praying in tongues is never condoned.

Tongues without interpretation was out of order an added confusion! See you take away from the scriptures you only get out of that chapter what you want to prove your man-made theology! You left out how he set tongues in order in vs. 26-28. Not to mention vs. 39...which you have been doing ever since we started debating this issue!

It was a rebuke on the gift of tongues or languages, a gift that you don't have. You don't know what you speak; they knew the languages they spoke. You simply speak a pagan gibberish. It isn't a Christian phenomena. It comes from paganism.

 

[awaken]

In context, if you add on the words "in the first century" then you will have the meaning correct. It is not for today.

Your man taught theology puts an end to it in the first century! But no where in scriptures can you or have you proven that!

Don't ever speak in tongues without interpretation, which makes your gibberish totally out of line.

Since you continue to call God's gift gibberish, I will let Him deal with that! But I will address the statement before that...When I pray in the spirit, whether in church or out, I ask for the interpretation. So I get the interpretation!

The praying was proper. The praying in tongues was improper and rebuked because no one could understand it. You still don't get that do you? Praying in tongues is never condoned.

Yes it is! As long as it is interpreted! Again you add to or take away what is being said! WHat you need to grasp if nothing else is that there is such a thing as praying in the spirit/tongues/prayer/giving thanks!

It was a rebuke on the gift of tongues or languages, a gift that you don't have. You don't know what you speak; they knew the languages they spoke. You simply speak a pagan gibberish. It isn't a Christian phenomena. It comes from paganism.

So you can not defend your position so you again start the personal attacks! I have said it was a rebuke book! But you go beyond the rebukes and add to or ignore certain scriptures! He rebuked the wrong way...BUT HE SHOWED THE RIGHT WAY...and it was not forbidden!

 

[DHK]

Your man taught theology puts an end to it in the first century! But no where in scriptures can you or have you proven that!

First, my theology is not man-made; it is simply not acceptable.
I base my beliefs on the Bible; you base yours on your experience, putting your experience above the Word of God. Take a step back and look at it realistically. You are willing to associate yourself with a cultic movement that stated in 1905, and deny more than 1800 years of Orthodox Christianity declaring adamantly that they never received "the baptism of the Holy Spirit" as you have. To so flippantly dismiss so much history where so much has been accomplished for the Lord is absolutely astounding. And yet they never claimed what you claim. Neither did the ECF.

Since you continue to call God's gift gibberish, I will let Him deal

First, gibberish is not God's gift. God's gift (of tongues) were actual known languages. You have testified that you don't know any language that you speak. You can't identify any. You don't speak a language; you don't know what you speak. You speak gibberish, and that is not God's gift. You will have a hard time proving that from the Bible.

What gifts has God given the church for today?
Ephesians 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
--The men here are the local church or churches as he is writing to the church at Ephesus. If you look at the punctuation you will see that verses 9 and 19 are parenthetical. Then verse 11 says:
Ephesians 4:11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;
--We don't have apostles or prophets today, except as authors of the Word of God. But we do have evangelists, pastors and teachers. This is what God has given us. Notice two things.
First, Ephesians was written from Rome, ca. 62 A.D. whereas 1Cor. was written from Philippi ca. 55 A.D., about 7 years earlier. Those seven years make a big difference. There are no mention of "gifts of the Spirit" in the letter to the Ephesians. The gifts that he mentioned are the men that God gave to guide and teach them.
He continues:
Ephesians 4:11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;
12 For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ:
13 Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:
14 That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive;

What a marvelous passage! How do we grow in Christ? How do we mature? How are we edified? How do we come to the point in our lives that we are so mature in our lives that we are no longer children influenced by false teachers as the Corinthians were?
--The answer was through teachers, pastors, and evangelists. It was not through the gifts of the Spirit.

with that! But I will address the statement before that...When I pray in the spirit, whether in church or out, I ask for the interpretation. So I get the interpretation!

So what language do you pray in? And what interpretation do you get?
Give an example? And how do you know if the interpretation is true. Can you verify it? How does one interpret gibberish, or do you know the name of the language?

Yes it is! As long as it is interpreted! Again you add to or take away what is being said! WHat you need to grasp if nothing else is that there is such a thing as praying in the spirit/tongues/prayer/giving thanks!

Praying privately in tongues has never be condoned in the Bible.
Praying publicly was not advised. It was used as a hypothetical, not condoned. Where does Paul give permission to pray in tongues? He doesn't. The gift is given for the entire church, just like healing is. You think it is given for selfish reasons. It isn't.
Praying in the spirit. We all do that. It is not praying in tongues.
Prayer and giving thanks are both something we all do. They have nothing to do with tongues. Speaking in another language was a gift in and of itself. Why are you confusing it with other gifts?

So you can not defend your position so you again start the personal attacks! I have said it was a rebuke book! But you go beyond the rebukes and add to or ignore certain scriptures! He rebuked the wrong way...BUT HE SHOWED THE RIGHT WAY...and it was not forbidden!

Yes, he rebuked them. But you don't even listen to the rebukes he gave.
For example, this is a rebuke:
1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
And you don't get that. He is telling them not to speak in tongues. People don't understand. And they don't understand you either when you speak in tongues, and you don't understand you when you speak in tongues, and neither does God, for he doesn't understand gibberish.

 

[awaken]

First, my theology is not man-made; it is simply not acceptable.
I base my beliefs on the Bible; you base yours on your experience, putting your experience above the Word of God. Take a step back and look at it realistically. You are willing to associate yourself with a cultic movement that stated in 1905, and deny more than 1800 years of Orthodox Christianity declaring adamantly that they never received "the baptism of the Holy Spirit" as you have. To so flippantly dismiss so much history where so much has been accomplished for the Lord is absolutely astounding. And yet they never claimed what you claim. Neither did the ECF.

First, gibberish is not God's gift. God's gift (of tongues) were actual known languages. You have testified that you don't know any language that you speak. You can't identify any. You don't speak a language; you don't know what you speak. You speak gibberish, and that is not God's gift. You will have a hard time proving that from the Bible.

What gifts has God given the church for today?
Ephesians 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
--The men here are the local church or churches as he is writing to the church at Ephesus. If you look at the punctuation you will see that verses 9 and 19 are parenthetical. Then verse 11 says:
Ephesians 4:11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;
--We don't have apostles or prophets today, except as authors of the Word of God. But we do have evangelists, pastors and teachers. This is what God has given us. Notice two things.
First, Ephesians was written from Rome, ca. 62 A.D. whereas 1Cor. was written from Philippi ca. 55 A.D., about 7 years earlier. Those seven years make a big difference. There are no mention of "gifts of the Spirit" in the letter to the Ephesians. The gifts that he mentioned are the men that God gave to guide and teach them.
He continues:
Ephesians 4:11 And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers;
12 For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ:
13 Till we all come in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect man, unto the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ:
14 That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro, and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive;

What a marvelous passage! How do we grow in Christ? How do we mature? How are we edified? How do we come to the point in our lives that we are so mature in our lives that we are no longer children influenced by false teachers as the Corinthians were?
--The answer was through teachers, pastors, and evangelists. It was not through the gifts of the Spirit.

So what language do you pray in? And what interpretation do you get?
Give an example? And how do you know if the interpretation is true. Can you verify it? How does one interpret gibberish, or do you know the name of the language?

Praying privately in tongues has never be condoned in the Bible.
Praying publicly was not advised. It was used as a hypothetical, not condoned. Where does Paul give permission to pray in tongues? He doesn't. The gift is given for the entire church, just like healing is. You think it is given for selfish reasons. It isn't.
Praying in the spirit. We all do that. It is not praying in tongues.
Prayer and giving thanks are both something we all do. They have nothing to do with tongues. Speaking in another language was a gift in and of itself. Why are you confusing it with other gifts?

Yes, he rebuked them. But you don't even listen to the rebukes he gave.
For example, this is a rebuke:
1 Corinthians 14:2 For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.
And you don't get that. He is telling them not to speak in tongues. People don't understand. And they don't understand you either when you speak in tongues, and you don't understand you when you speak in tongues, and neither does God, for he doesn't understand gibberish.

You pick and chose what you want to believe in scriptures! The rebuke was not to forbid as you and others want to claim!
Tongues is part of the list of the manifestion of the Holy Spirit! You have trouble with that...you explain it away because you your self are not experiencing any of the manifestation. If you would repent of your unbelief and ask God to show you as I did...He is faithful! Follow God and not what your man made seminaries teach!