37818
Well-Known Member
Who in 1611 critized Acts of the Apostles 12:4 for using "Easter?" Or are you just making a false assertion?1611
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Who in 1611 critized Acts of the Apostles 12:4 for using "Easter?" Or are you just making a false assertion?1611
Likely? A bald face falsehood.Likely soon as it was published.
There's PLENTYA proof it's a goof. First, Easter simply didn't exist when Luke wrote "Acts". Second, the AV men clearly knew Easter & passover apart. Third, neither the Jews nor Herod woulda observed Jesus' resurrection. Fourth, there was no good reason not to render pascha as 'passover', as was done 28 other times in the NT. Fifth, the translation is supposed to reflect LUKE'S written thoughts, not those of the translators.Rather than a tiresome tit for tat, how about someone go to the Bodleian Library at Oxford and check the 1602 Bishops Bible with annotations by the King James translators. Perhaps that would tell us something actual and factual. I recommend Robocop do it, since he is the constant purveyor without proof that Easter in Acts 12:4 is a goof.
Can you prove differently? Of course not.Likely? A bald face falsehood.
Until Tyndale translated it "Easter" it was not yet translated Easter. Until Tyndale invented the English word "Passover" that word did not yet exist in our English.
Bibliography of the King James BibleRather than a tiresome tit for tat, how about someone go to the Bodleian Library at Oxford and check the 1602 Bishops Bible with annotations by the King James translators. Perhaps that would tell us something actual and factual. I recommend Robocop do it, since he is the constant purveyor without proof that Easter in Acts 12:4 is a goof.
Likely?
about someone go to the Bodleian Library at Oxford and check the 1602 Bishops Bible with annotations by the King James translators. .
Then, unless the translators wrote about it elsewhere, I suppose we are left we no translator testimony on why Easter was left in Acts 12:4.That 1602 Bishops' Bible does not have the KJV translators' annotations for the whole Bible.
Ward Allen and Edward Jacobs stated: "The New Testament annotations fill margins and text in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John 17-21. Except for five annotations scattered in the Epistles, there are no other annotations" (Coming of the King James Gospels, p. 5).
Yes, it does look that way. But not for nothing. At least he would have a good trip to a foreign country that speaks the King's English.Don't send Robycop all that way for nothing [I believe just some of the Gospels have annotations, not the rest of the NT].
This is a little off-subject, but this morning during adult Sunday School with about 70 attending, a question was asked by the teacher. "Does anyone have a King James Bible?" He wanted to see what the rendering was for a particular verse in that version. No one raised their hand. It had to be accessed electronically. I would conjecture that a dozen years ago at least a dozen hands would have been raised hearing that question.KJV vs. NKJV: which do you prefer?
So, if I am understanding you correctly, there is second-hand testimony of what somebody who saw something told, and we are currently unable to corroborate it because the text somebody saw no longer exists?...That important evidence asserts that some who examined the copy of the text prepared by the KJV translators for the printers saw evidence of the changes made by a prelate or prelates in that copy before it was lost or destroyed [perhaps around 1660 in the London fire].
Wow. I have for years suspected Easter was a synonym for Passover in English during that time period. thank you for confirming.Oh, it was not!
Passover and Easter were synonyms, just look at this from a Geneva Bible:
Deuteronomy 16
View attachment 3495
Exodus 23
View attachment 3494
see pp. 84 & 202 here:
1599 Geneva Bible | Monergism
Can you prove differently? Of course not.
Hmm . . . . a intentional goof? I do not think so.Now, had the KJV CONSISTENTLY rendered pascha as Easter, it could simply be chalked up as an archaism, but the ONE-TIME rendering must be considered a GOOF. (Pascha is the SAME WORD Jesus is quoted as using for passover, unless you believe HE observed Easter !)
". . . And when he had caught hym, he put hym in pryson also, and delyuered hym to foure quaternions of souldiers to be kept, intendyng after Easter to bryng hym foorth to the people. . . ." Acts of the Apostles 12:4, Bishops' Bible 1568, A MySword App note on the Bishops' Bible, "The Bishops' Bible is an English translation of the Bible which was produced under the authority of the established Church of England in 1568. It was substantially revised in 1572, and this revised edition was to be prescribed as the base text for the Authorized King James Version of 1611. <snip>"That 1602 Bishops' Bible does not have the KJV translators' annotations for the whole Bible.
Ward Allen and Edward Jacobs stated: "The New Testament annotations fill margins and text in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John 17-21. Except for five annotations scattered in the Epistles, there are no other annotations" (Coming of the King James Gospels, p. 5).