• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

What Is Free Will?

Status
Not open for further replies.

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
No, I don't deny that the wants all types of people to be saved. Not just kings, not just Jews, etc. He does not want to save all individuals, otherwise, he would.

So you clear deny what the bible says. 1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved. Shows that your calvinsit theology is more important to you than the bible. You deny clear scripture by twisting the text. Sad, really really sad.
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
Man doesnt have a freewill because our will prior to new birth deliverance is a slave to sin. However man does have a accountable will, man is held accountable for his sinful choices even as a slave/servant to sin.
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
So you clear deny what the bible says. 1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved. Shows that your calvinsit theology is more important to you than the bible. You deny clear scripture by twisting the text. Sad, really really sad.
Thats talking about the elect and they all will be saved. Cant nobody thwart Gods will, desire. Havent you ever read this about God Job 23:13

13 But he is in one mind, and who can turn him? and what his soul desireth, even that he doeth.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
I don't think you understand what Midrash is...

The taking of Old Testament passages of Scripture out of their natural contexts is what is known in Rabbinic tradition as Midrash.

In general terms: Midrash is the Hebrew word for interpretation, amplification, exegesis of a holy, revealed text: the written Torah.

At Rom_3:10-18, the apostle (Rabbi) Paul, had a theme: the universality sin. He then went in search of the Hebrew Scriptures to prove his point, and he found some of the harshest statements concerning sin found in the Bible. However, if one read each of those verses of Scripture in their natural contexts, he would find that it was confined and particular, not general, which is how Paul used those texts.

For example, his use of Ecc_7:20 at Rom_3:10 is not the entire verse, for it reads, “For there is not a just man on earth who does good and does not sin.” Paul left off the phrase “and does not sin” at Rom_3:10. The point Solomon was making in Ecclesiastes was that there is no one on earth among mortals who is sinless, so be careful to live a balanced, godly life, not in self-rightesousness, but not in sin either.

Midrash of Rom_3:10-18; it is not meant to be taken literally of each and every human being.

Even Calvinist Donald Grey Barnhouse noted the same when he wrote, “But we add that total depravity does not mean that there is no good in man, but that there is no good in man which can satisfy God.

Some Calvinists tend to portray mankind as demons and completely neglect the fact that though man’s nature has been tainted from the fall, humans are still created in the image of God.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Give the reference.

You need a reference that says God is omniscient. Are you not the ones that holler GOD IS SOVEREIGN? The text of the bible shows the foreknowledge of God. Ever hear of prophecy. Do you actually think He does not know what is going to happen, come on you can not be serious.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Man doesnt have a freewill because our will prior to new birth deliverance is a slave to sin. However man does have a accountable will, man is held accountable for his sinful choices even as a slave/servant to sin.

BF, as calvinists posit, God decrees all things, {WCF/LBCF Chap 3, sec 1} then that means He decrees all sin that man does since no one can do anything that God has not decreed under your theology. So if man is a slave to sin it is because God made him that way and then judges him for it. Your theology sure makes God seem strange in how He acts toward those He created and loves.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Thats talking about the elect and they all will be saved. Cant nobody thwart Gods will, desire. Havent you ever read this about God Job 23:13

13 But he is in one mind, and who can turn him? and what his soul desireth, even that he doeth.

There you go reading into the text. Since you will not learn from me perhaps you will from this man.

Charles Spurgeon on 1Ti_2:3-4
Salvation By Knowing the Truth,
The Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, vol. 26
January 16th, 1880

What then? Shall we try to put another meaning into the text than that which it fairly bears? I trow not. You must, most of you, be acquainted with the general method in which our older Calvinistic friends deal with this text. “All men,” say they,—”that is, some men”: as if the Holy Ghost could not have said “some men” if he had meant some men. “All men,” say they; “that is, some of all sorts of men”: as if the Lord could not have said “all sorts of men” if he had meant that. The Holy Ghost by the apostle has written “all men,” and unquestionably he means all men. I know how to get rid of the force of the “alls” according to that critical method which some time ago was very current, but I do not see how it can be applied here with due regard to truth. I was reading just now the exposition of a very able doctor who explains the text so as to explain it away; he applies grammatical gunpowder to it, and explodes it by way of expounding it. I thought when I read his exposition that it would have been a very capital comment upon the text if it had read, “Who will not have all men to be saved, nor come to a knowledge of the truth.” […] My love of consistency with my own doctrinal views is not great enough to allow me knowingly to alter a single text of Scripture. […] So runs the text, and so we must read it, “God our Savior; who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.”
Does not the text mean that it is the wish of God that men should be saved? The word “wish” gives as much force to the original as it really requires, and the passage should run thus—”whose wish it is that all men should be saved and come to a knowledge of the truth.” As it is my wish that it should be so, as it is your wish that it might be so, so it is God’s wish that all men should be saved; for, assuredly, he is not less benevolent than we are..
Charles Spurgeon, “Salvation By Knowing the Truth,” The Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, vol. 26 (Pasadena, TX: Pilgrim Publications, 1972), 49-50.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
You need a reference that says God is omniscient. Are you not the ones that holler GOD IS SOVEREIGN? The text of the bible shows the foreknowledge of God. Ever hear of prophecy. Do you actually think He does not know what is going to happen, come on you can not be serious.
Show me a reference that states God elects based on who he saw would believe in him. You won't find one.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
The taking of Old Testament passages of Scripture out of their natural contexts is what is known in Rabbinic tradition as Midrash.

In general terms: Midrash is the Hebrew word for interpretation, amplification, exegesis of a holy, revealed text: the written Torah.

At Rom_3:10-18, the apostle (Rabbi) Paul, had a theme: the universality sin. He then went in search of the Hebrew Scriptures to prove his point, and he found some of the harshest statements concerning sin found in the Bible. However, if one read each of those verses of Scripture in their natural contexts, he would find that it was confined and particular, not general, which is how Paul used those texts.

For example, his use of Ecc_7:20 at Rom_3:10 is not the entire verse, for it reads, “For there is not a just man on earth who does good and does not sin.” Paul left off the phrase “and does not sin” at Rom_3:10. The point Solomon was making in Ecclesiastes was that there is no one on earth among mortals who is sinless, so be careful to live a balanced, godly life, not in self-rightesousness, but not in sin either.

Midrash of Rom_3:10-18; it is not meant to be taken literally of each and every human being.

Even Calvinist Donald Grey Barnhouse noted the same when he wrote, “But we add that total depravity does not mean that there is no good in man, but that there is no good in man which can satisfy God.

Some Calvinists tend to portray mankind as demons and completely neglect the fact that though man’s nature has been tainted from the fall, humans are still created in the image of God.
Last I checked, Romans was inspired by God, not an out of context commentary. So your whole post, to put it plainly, is stupid.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Oh would that mean as you calvinists would exegete the text. But you have been shown that your version does not fit with the bible text so why would we accept your version.
I have been shown nothing of the sort. All I have been shown is out of context Scripture.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
So you clear deny what the bible says. 1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved. Shows that your calvinsit theology is more important to you than the bible. You deny clear scripture by twisting the text. Sad, really really sad.
I did not deny it and you should quit being so dishonest. 1 Tim. 2:4 has a context and you are ignoring it.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
[QUOTE="Brightfame52, post: 2780182, member: 18124 Havent you ever read this about God Job 23:13

13 But he is in one mind, and who can turn him? and what his soul desireth, even that he doeth.[/QUOTE]

So your saying that what ever God wants to happen will happen.

1Ti 2:3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior,
1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

So does this desire of God mean, that all men will be saved or that it is what God wants to happen but may not happen.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top