Why?Yes. It is a genitive singular feminine definite article.
διὰ τῆς πίστεως for the faith in the atonement made by Christ (Romans 3:25; Romans 3:30, al.) is, as the apprehending cause of the Messianic salvation, the necessary mediate instrument on the part of man, while the χάρις is the divine motive, the efficient cause of the bestowal of the faith on the lost. The emphasis, however, is retained by τῇ χάριτι alone, and διὰ τῆς πίστ. is only the modal definition to σεσωσμ.
Isn't, "the faith," the cause of the bestowal of, "the grace," and therefore was therefore necessary to have preceded, "the grace"?
Wasn't the grace of God which came through,"the faith," brought forth when this verse became fact? Hebrews 5:9 And
being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him; Is that not when? Titus 2:11 For
the grace of God
that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
Is not, being made perfect, Heb 5:9 relative to Jesus being, Called of God an high priest after the order of Melchisedec. Verse 10 relative to Verse's 5,6 So also Christ glorified not himself to be made an high priest; but he that said unto him,
Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee. As he saith also in another
place, Thou
art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
Therefore grace came when it was stated,
Thou art my Son, to day have I begotten thee. which was the day of the resurrection per Acts 13:33?
Did that take place because of, the faith? Did, the faith precede, the grace? Just any old faith or the faith?
I believe, "the faith," that brought, "the grace," of (the) God was the learned Obedience of the Son Heb 5:8 unto death, even the death of the cross Phil 2:8
Wherefore V9 God also hath highly exalted him, and given him
a name which is above every name: See Heb 1:4,5 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath
by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they. For unto which of the angels said he at any time,
Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
What about my question concerning Eph 2:8 and Titus 3:5 saying the very same thing in two different ways? Could you touch on that?