But the law of sin and death existed even where the Law did not. Those from Adam to Moses sinned. They died. "Sin begats death", "the wages of sin is death".
Where I disagree is saying that the law of sin and death is like the Law. There is nothing to transgress witg the law of sin and death. The wages of sin is death.
Greetings JonC. Grace and hope to you through our Lord Jesus Christ.
I would first like to say that I am not commenting on "where does wrath go" or commenting based on the others in this thread. Since wrath is tied to the law I am focusing on what you said in the quote above regarding the law.
My observations are these (looking for what you think or how you consider it).
1.
Sin is lawlessness (1John 3:4). This means that sin is without law or there is no law or order concerning sin. Under the uncheck dominion of sin, there was no law and order, if you will, which is shown in 1John 3:4 (which you affirmed in another thread).
2. Paul alludes to a
law of sin and death (Rom 7:23, 25, 8:2) that he contrasts against the law of the Spirit of life in Christ.
My observation is this... if sin is lawlessness how can there be a law of sin? This seems to be a contradiction. If sin is lawlessness then framing sin under a structure of law seems like an error. But what if Paul knows full well that this would be a contradiction and intends his phrase to mean something slightly different than the isolated dominion of power of sin that was found from Adam until Moses.
What if Paul intends to present the law of sin and death as a post Law of Moses. In this since the law of sin and death means, sin + God's law = law of sin and death.
We see that Paul shows this concept in 1 Corinthians 15:56 when he says,
"The sting of death [is] sin, and the strength of sin [is] the law." Here Paul frames sin and the law together, working together in a way that brings death. In other words, a law that gives strength to sin and death... or another possible way ... a law of sin and death.
One last observation, In Romans 7 Paul talks about how sin
"taking the opportunity by the commandment, produced in me all manner of evil desire" (Rom 7:8). Here Paul again combines the two. In this case, Paul tells us that "desire" was generated by sin that worked through the law.
Is this what Paul means when he says the "law of sin and death"? Which does he mean...
1. Sin + lawlessness dominion = law of sin and death
2. Sin + law = law of sin and death
Keep seeking God's truth (Prov 2)
