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Featured Reasons for the 2nd Coming of Christ

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by John of Japan, Oct 30, 2017.

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  1. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Can't provide a cogent answer. It's okay. I understand.
     
  2. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    I pretty much agree with you here. It is in the context of 15:24, wherein Christ offers His kingdom to the Father.
     
  3. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Maybe I need to focus less on Greek and Japanese when I work on our new Japanese NT. :Biggrin
     
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  4. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    HEY!!!

    Do you not know that you absolutely must translate from the KJV?

    It is more accurate than the original languages. And any translation work that does not come from the KJV automatically carries over the inaccuracies of the original languages.

    :)
     
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  5. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Aw, shucks. I'd ask Peter R. about this, but he's dead. Probably looking for the original manuscripts of the KJV in Heaven, because they sure don't exist on Earth. :Biggrin
     
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  6. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    The reason why Docetism was such a pernicious doctrine is that it denied Christ having come in the flesh and, consequently, that He died and rose again in,the flesh. He only seemed (hence the name) to be in the flesh. There was no real connection between God and man. No Gospel.
     
  7. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    No you don't understand. See my comment to agedman. Your attitude seems ill-disposed to objectively consider what I write. I don't think you even care to consider.
     
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  8. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Full blown pretierism is heresy.
     
  9. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    (I tried to edit the post above but somehow made a new post. Please see additional comments at the bottom)

    The reason why Docetism was such a pernicious doctrine is that it denied Christ having come in the flesh and, consequently, that He died and rose again in,the flesh. He only seemed (hence the name) to be in the flesh. There was no real connection between God and man. No Gospel.

    But AD70 is not part of the Gospel event. It was only necessary for Christ to be in the flesh to save us.

    Since then the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; Heb. 2:14

    I should have quoted all the way down to verse 16 or 18, but it is hard to do it on this phone.

    Please consider also Heb. 5:17:
    Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared;[/QUOTE]
     
  10. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    In what way was the 'lowly body' of the Philippian church transformed so as to be conformed to Christ's body in AD 70? Did it not rather remain exactly as it was before? '.....The Church, which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all' (Ephesians 1:22-23). A true church was the body of Christ when Paul wrote to the Ephesians and it is so today. AD 70 changed nothing at all. [ If a church is not a true church, it is not a church at all]

    Whether you take Philippians 3:21 as referring to a physical body or to a church, or indeed to the Church, nothing changed in AD 70, and the eager expectation of the Philippians would not have been realised, even if the Lord Jesus had appeared in/above Jerusalem in AD 70 since Philippi is about 1,000 miles away. They would have had to wait for some weeks or months for someone to come and tell them that 'every eye' had seen Him, and that their lowly body had been transformed because otherwise how would they have known?
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Strange that the Apostle John wrote after AD 70, and he was still expecting to see the Second Coming of the Lord Jesus....
     
  12. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Put your tinfoil hat back on. The alien brain beam seems to be affecting you again.
     
  13. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    John wrote Revelation before AD70.

    One indication (among many) is that "Nero Caesar" in Hebrew numbering adds up to 666.
     
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  14. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    I realize that sometimes I cross the line and say things rudely that I later regret. But, reading over what I wrote to you, I was not aware of being rude. Im not going to trade insults as if we were teenagers. This is my last comment to you.
     
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  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    He wroye John 1/2/3 after AD 70 !
     
  16. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Sure. Tertullian, Victorious, Hippolytus, Clement of Alexandria, and Jerome were all wrong and you are right. Uh huh.
     
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  17. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Oh, please no. Don't bring that silly numerology onto this thread, which is about the reasons for the 2nd Coming of Christ. It's not about the idiocy of Ivan Panin or any of his followers.

    So in light of that I'll ask again of you or any other preterist. Since Christ said He would come to take His disciples with Him, how did that occur in AD 70?

    This is just one of the many positive reasons for the 2nd Coming. I've never heard anything but the negative from preterists.
     
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  18. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    The numbers of the Hebrew letters in Neron Kesar (in English "Nero Caesar") are:

    n = 50
    r = 200
    w = 6
    n = 50
    q = 100
    s = 60
    r = 200

    I remember years ago that some versions of this verse in Revelation have a variant of 616 (50 less than the full value). This is because some copyists used a variant spelling of Nero, as opposed to the correct "Neron".

    But why would this be in Hebrew, not Greek. Well, John's message is primarily to the Jews. It was concerning things soon to come (As we read in the very first verse of Revelation and elsewhere). So he wrote it in a sort of code, a language and numbering that the Romans would not understand. That is why "wisdom" is required to understand who John was writing about.
     
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  19. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Reasons for the Second Coming? Easy. James M. Black got it right. :)

    When the trumpet of the Lord shall sound, and time shall be no more,
    And the morning breaks, eternal, bright and fair;
    When the saved of earth shall gather over on the other shore,
    And the roll is called up yonder, I'll be there.

    When the roll is called up yonder,
    When the roll is called up yonder,
    When the roll is called up yonder,
    When the roll is called up yonder, I'll be there.

    On that bright and cloudless morning when the dead in Christ shall rise,
    And the glory of his resurrection share;
    When his chosen ones shall gather to their home beyond the skies,
    And the roll is called up yonder, I'll be there.

    Let us labor for the Master from the dawn till setting sun,
    Let us talk of all his wondrous love and care;
    Then when all of life is over, and our work on earth is done,
    And the roll is called up yonder, I'll be there.
     
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  20. asterisktom

    asterisktom Well-Known Member
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    It is not cultic numerology. It is an actual system the Hebrews used. Many commentaries refer to this.

    At any rate I pass this on so that true Bereans of God's precious Word can consider this possibility. I am not really trying to convince you, John. I know your mind is already made up on this.
     
    #100 asterisktom, Nov 7, 2017
    Last edited: Nov 7, 2017
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