Can't provide a cogent answer. It's okay. I understand.I don't take seriously anything you say. Not after your imagining that preterism is docetism "raising it's ugly head" (words to that effect).
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Can't provide a cogent answer. It's okay. I understand.I don't take seriously anything you say. Not after your imagining that preterism is docetism "raising it's ugly head" (words to that effect).
I pretty much agree with you here. It is in the context of 15:24, wherein Christ offers His kingdom to the Father.What is your thinking of the last three words in the quoted verse?
I heard a preacher who waxed long about how the words meant that every person and thing would become as Eden with God “all (and) in all.”
Then i’ve heard it presented that the submission of Christ to the Father exalts The Father as the God (of) all (and) in (in authority over) all.
In my own thinking, because the presentation of Christ as both the total subjugator of all nature, all political, all Spiritual, all ..., then it follows that the submission to the Father is that of bringing honor and recognition of authority over “all in all” no matter what the “all.”
That hasn’t taken place, but will.
To me that is the most comforting blessing of the promised 2nd coming! God will be seen by all as the absolute authority and control of all.
Maybe I need to focus less on Greek and Japanese when I work on our new Japanese NT.How does being fluent in Hebrew and/or Greek cause one to "lose sight of the big picture?"
Does being fluent in German or French cause one to lose sight of the big picture?
Is this some sort of new "English Only" nonsense like KJVOism?
HEY!!!Maybe I need to focus less on Greek and Japanese when I work on our new Japanese NT.
Aw, shucks. I'd ask Peter R. about this, but he's dead. Probably looking for the original manuscripts of the KJV in Heaven, because they sure don't exist on Earth.HEY!!!
Do you not know that you absolutely must translate from the KJV?
It is more accurate than the original languages. And any translation work that does not come from the KJV automatically carries over the inaccuracies of the original languages.
Is it not a docetism in the thinking that there was a “spiritual” return in 70 AD?
Is not the basic question of Christ having or not having a body, or in some manner can be separated from the body, a concern of the docetism?
I realize that much more of that thinking includes other aspects as far as his earthly form being spiritual and only appeared physical.
But as it concerns 70 AD, would it not be considered?
Can't provide a cogent answer. It's okay. I understand.
Full blown pretierism is heresy.No you don't understand. See my comment to agedman. Your attitude seems ill-disposed to objectively consider what I write. I don't think you even care to consider.
In what way was the 'lowly body' of the Philippian church transformed so as to be conformed to Christ's body in AD 70? Did it not rather remain exactly as it was before? '.....The Church, which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all' (Ephesians 1:22-23). A true church was the body of Christ when Paul wrote to the Ephesians and it is so today. AD 70 changed nothing at all. [ If a church is not a true church, it is not a church at all]I am sorry that I only have a little time for short comments here and there. But might I suggest that "body", being in the singular (as it often is in the NT) refers to the corporate body per Eph. 4:4-6.
4 There is one body and one Spirit, just as also you were called in one hope of your calling; 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 one God and Father of all who is over all and through all and in all.
Strange that the Apostle John wrote after AD 70, and he was still expecting to see the Second Coming of the Lord Jesus....In what way was the 'lowly body' of the Philippian church transformed so as to be conformed to Christ's body in AD 70? Did it not rather remain exactly as it was before? '.....The Church, which is His body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all' (Ephesians 1:22-23). A true church was the body of Christ when Paul wrote to the Ephesians and it is so today. AD 70 changed nothing at all. [ If a church is not a true church, it is not a church at all]
Whether you take Philippians 3:21 as referring to a physical body or to a church, or indeed to the Church, nothing changed in AD 70, and the eager expectation of the Philippians would not have been realised, even if the Lord Jesus had appeared in/above Jerusalem in AD 70 since Philippi is about 1,000 miles away. They would have had to wait for some weeks or months for someone to come and tell them that 'every eye' had seen Him, and that their lowly body had been transformed because otherwise how would they have known?
Put your tinfoil hat back on. The alien brain beam seems to be affecting you again.No you don't understand. See my comment to agedman. Your attitude seems ill-disposed to objectively consider what I write. I don't think you even care to consider.
Full blown pretierism is heresy.
Strange that the Apostle John wrote after AD 70, and he was still expecting to see the Second Coming of the Lord Jesus....
Put your tinfoil hat back on. The alien brain beam seems to be affecting you again.
He wroye John 1/2/3 after AD 70 !John wrote Revelation before AD70.
One indication (among many) is that "Nero Caesar" in Hebrew numbering adds up to 666.
Sure. Tertullian, Victorious, Hippolytus, Clement of Alexandria, and Jerome were all wrong and you are right. Uh huh.John wrote Revelation before AD70.
Oh, please no. Don't bring that silly numerology onto this thread, which is about the reasons for the 2nd Coming of Christ. It's not about the idiocy of Ivan Panin or any of his followers.John wrote Revelation before AD70.
One indication (among many) is that "Nero Caesar" in Hebrew numbering adds up to 666.
He wroye John 1/2/3 after AD 70 !
Oh, please no. Don't bring that silly numerology onto this thread, which is about the reasons for the 2nd Coming of Christ. It's not about the idiocy of Ivan Panin or any of his followers.
So in light of that I'll ask again of you or any other preterist. Since Christ said He would come to take His disciples with Him, how did that occur in AD 70?
This is just one of the many positive reasons for the 2nd Coming. I've never heard anything but the negative from preterists.