• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Could Christ Have Sinned? II

Status
Not open for further replies.

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
In the context of the passage (2 Timothy 1:13-2:13), when Paul expounds on his "therefore" in verse 10 regarding the believer's need to endure, which requires faithfulness to the Lord, and reference to Numbers 23:19 which refers to God's faithfulness to His promised blessing to Israel (cursing them per Balak would mean God lied to Israel regarding His promise); impossibility to do Phiilippians 2:5-8 and Hebrews 2:15 which IS the Lord's choice of setting aside His divine nature, your "shed His divinity, which is impossible," strays way outside the context. God won't deny what He already promised, not that it is impossible to set aside His divine nature.
No. What you're saying is what the Apostle stated elsewhere, that it is impossible for God to lie. Here the Apostle is saying God cannot be other than He is.

"He abideth (stays, remains, faithful), because He cannot do otherwise."
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
The part that is a "power" is not lying but assigning that to "ability". It is one thing to say that it is impossible for God to lie. It is another thing to say that God is unable to lie.

When we use the word "can" or "cannot" we are not speaking of corruption but of power. In the context of the passage (and the whole of Scripture) God's inability to lie is founded in God's nature and His righteousness. God's word is true because God does not lie. It is impossible that God's word fail or be false based on divine righteous, not divine inability.
You're just saying God is corruptible.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
What do you not understand that Adam was a man created WITHOUT that sinful nature in perfect environment with perfect face to face fellowship with God, and yet he sinned?
Genesis 3:1-22. Why did Jesus then call the devil a murderer in this?
If you ever thought of making pretzels, you'd be really good at it but using Hebrews 4:15 which disproves your point, not so much.
Why should the "knowledge of good abd evil" cause man to have a sinful nature, Genesis 3:22?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
So Jesus being born a human recieved that "knowledge of good and evil" from both His mother and He from being the Son of God from His own divine nature being the Creator

no such thing! Jesus Christ IS eternally Almighty God, pre-Incarnation and post-Incarnation. At His conception in the womb of Mary, Jesus Christ "took upon Himself the sinless Nature of a Human". He did not "receive" any knowledge about anything from His mother!
 
WHERE in the Bible does it ever say that Adam was "holy", as it does for Jesus Christ in Luke 1:35?

It doesn't and I never said Adam was holy. He was born perfect and God said that was good. Do you think God created a sin nature in Adam? Genesis 1:31 says, nope.

People should stop trying to compare the Lord Jesus Christ, in His human nature to that of Adam, as they are NOT completely alike!

Who said they were completely alike? However, they were both born perfect, with no old sin nature.

Adams had the ability to disobey God, which Jesus could not ever do!

Because Jesus did not sin, He did not have the ability to sin but Adam who did sin was created by God with ability to sin, is flawed logic. It seems like you keep ignoring Philippians 2:6-8 and Hebrews 4:15 because your wrong conclusions about the doctrine of Christology are blinding you.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
no such thing! Jesus Christ IS eternally Almighty God, pre-Incarnation and post-Incarnation. At His conception in the womb of Mary, Jesus Christ "took upon Himself the sinless Nature of a Human". He did not "receive" any knowledge about anything from His mother!
Two things, why was man having the knowledge of good and evil a problem? Genesis 2:17, Genesis 3:22.
Second, the knowledge of good and evil was God's. John 1:1-3.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
You're just saying God is corruptible.
No, quite the opposite. Where you say God is incorruptible because of a lack of ability I say exactly the opposite- He is incorruptible because He is righteous AND omnipotent.
 
God did not create them incorruptible.

Genesis 1:31 and Ezekiel 28:15 says otherwise.

Christ was not made, like Adam, Lucifer and one third of the angels. He is the only begotten of the Father.

I didn't say He was, although the Lord and Adam were perfect when their lives began. YOU said that the reason why men sin is because their natures are "bent" to sin. Neither Adam nor Lucifer nor the Lord had natures that were "bent" to sin. Adam was made perfect (Genesis 1:31) and Lucifer was made perfect (Ezekiel 28:15) and the humanity of Christ was begotten perfect (Luke 1:35). None of them had natures that were "bent" to sin and yet two out of three did. None of the angels were created with a "bent" to sin, yet one third of all of them did.
 

tyndale1946

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Aaron for what it is worth... This is an except from An Exposition Of Hebrews by A.W. Pink on Hebrews 4:15... Brother Glen:)

But was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin," or literally, "who has been tempted in all things according to our likeness, apart from sin" i.e. in spirit, and soul, and body. "Hewas tempted—tried, exercised— for no more doth the word impart. Whatever is the moral evil in temptation is due to the depraved intention of the tempter, or from the weakness and sin of the tempted. In itself, it is but a trial, which may have a good or bad effect. He was tempted like as we are, yet without sin. Sin may be considered as to its principle, and as to its effect. Men are tempted to sin by sin, to actual sin by habitual sin, to outward sin, by indwelling sin. And this is the greatest source of sin in us who are sinners. The apostle reminds us of the holiness and purity of Christ, that we may not imagine that He was liable unto any such temptations unto sin from within as we find ourselves liable unto, who are never free from guilt and defilement. Whatever temptation He was exposed unto or exercised withal, as He was with all and of all sorts that can come from without, they had none of them in the last degree any effect unto Him. He was absolutely in all things ‘without sin’; He neither was tempted by sin, such was the holiness of His nature; nor did His temptation produce sin, such was the perfection of His obedience" (Dr. John Owen).
 
No. What you're saying is what the Apostle stated elsewhere, that it is impossible for God to lie. Here the Apostle is saying God cannot be other than He is.

"He abideth (stays, remains, faithful), because He cannot do otherwise."

No, what I'm saying is you completely miss the context of 2 Timothy 2:1-13 which is an encouragement for Timothy to endure and why he ought to endure using his example and the Lord's example. 2 Timothy 2:13 does not say that it is impossible for God to lie. 1 Kings 22:19-23 suggests that possibility exists and Ahab is sure it does.
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Why make assumptions. Go with what we're told...it was not possible that he should be holden of death. Acts 2:24

That does not mean that he did not see death.

For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: 1 Cor 15:3,4

The third from / of, what?

Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him. Romans 6:9

And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Phil 2:8,9
hin these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages; who being the brightness of the glory, and the impress of His subsistence, bearing up also the all things by the saying of his might -- through himself having made a cleansing of our sins, < Through death ) sat down at the right hand of the greatness in the highest, < God hath highly exalted him, from Phil 2:9 and he inherited a name) having become so much better than the messengers, as he did inherit a more excellent name than they. Hebrews 1:4

What is wherefore tying together? Because, of obedience of faith, it was not possible for him to be held by it (the death) God, the Father exalted him.

Who by him <Jesus Christ Son of the Highest, born of Mary and died) do believe in God < the Father), that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God. 1 Peter 1:21 That is how I understand 1 Peter 1:21.
 

percho

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I believe Jesus never sinned yet I believe the question should be; How close did Jesus come to sinning? And I believe the answer is given here:

who in the days of his flesh both prayers and supplications unto Him who was able to save him from death -- with strong crying and tears -- having offered up, and having been heard in respect to that which he feared, through being a Son, did learn by the things which he suffered -- the obedience,

The obedience of what? What he came into the world to do. Die the death assigned to Adam. He feared the death.

Consider:

Looking off into the, of the faith, author and perfecter, Jesus, who, over-against the joy set before him -- did endure a cross, shame having despised, on the right hand also of the throne of God did sit down; for consider again him who endured such gainsaying from the sinners to himself, that ye may not be wearied in your souls -- being faint. Not yet unto blood did ye resist -- with the sin striving;

That was in the garden striving against sin, fearing the death, yet even the Son learned, obedience of faith, becoming obedient unto the death, even the death of the cross.

That is when, the faith, was authored and perfected.............................................................................

In Gal 3:23 and 25 speaking of before the coming of the faith and the faith having come. that is, the faith, being spoken of, the learned obedience unto death. That is the obedience ie faith by which righteousness comes to us, the righteousness of faith by the obedience of One, Jesus.
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
said that the reason why men sin is because their natures are "bent" to sin.

No I didn't. I said people tend to equate our bent to sinning as temptation, when it is just corruption.

People sin because they're corrupt. Not because they're tempted.
 

Iconoclast

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Wow, talk about a complete misunderstnading of the Gospel, and of the Holy Ghost Himself.

The Holy Ghost empowers people to live without sin. Though persons still have choice.

For instance. I used to consume the iniquitous alcohol. The Holy Ghost gave me victory over that - completely. I do not drink any more. Ever. So it has been much more than a few hours or minutes, but ever since that time years ago.

The Holy Ghost is to do this for all of my iniquitous thoughts, speech and actions.

The people of God do not merely have imaginary victory over sin - they actually partake of it.

You really ought to change your name to ""Not Saved" by Grace" if you actually believe what you just stated, for if you cannot have actual and permanent victory, then you have no salvation - from anything, by grace or anything else.
You sin everyday.:Cautious
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top