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I actually think that logos at Hebrews 4:12 is better seen as a reference to the "Word" (Second Person of the Godhead), not Scripture. Notice the pronouns in verse 13. To whom does "his" and "him" refer? What is the immediate antecedent of these two pronouns? -- For the word of God [is] quick...

"Be quiet" would be acceptable at Mark 1:25 in the sense that it is usually thought of being idiomatic of the cessation of verbal sounds and not a literal arresting of all possible noise making (such as clapping with hands, or stomping feet). The Greek word insinuates a 'muzzling' of the mouth...

Respectfully, may I add that I would appreciate that DaChaser1 (and others) would cease replying by 'quoting' an entire lengthy post when they are only responding to one small point or short portion. If necessary, a reader can always look back at the original post for context. There are several...

Oldtimer included this quote in his post (from a website) -- The website then goes on to make statements about the sources. To some extent "we know" the sources of the NKJV, but we really do NOT know what the sources of the KJV were with certainty. For example, there were (relatively) few...

So, which is it? Did you read the NKJV for years, or the NIV?

Happens more than you might think.

I would recommend much caution with using Internet sources. As you have seen, there is A LOT of 'stuff' out there. There are some well established websites with trusted reputations -- http://www.bible-researcher.com/ and http://bible.org/ are just two. But in the wild, wild unregulated webworld...

Hi, Brad. I think you deserve some direct answers to these questions. First, I am not really familiar with this particular number "22,000" manuscripts, but I pretty sure they could not all be original language manuscripts; that is, this number must include more than just the Greek and Hebrew...

That is my hope, too. Unfortunately, there has already been too much emphasis on the KJVO issue. Brad's original post mainly asked some basic questions about the ancient languages and number of manuscripts. The books that I listed are general books primarily about the transmission of the...

Brad, because I truly want to help you I will give you some answers to some of your questions now. You can confirm (or refute) my answers after you've had a chance to read some books and study the subject more. Yes, the various English translations use different words (or else they wouldn't be...

I agree that Geisler & Nix's General Introduction to the Bible (1968) is a good book to read. I'm going to recommend (because I've read 'em) some lighter books: one is called How We Got the Bible by Neil R. Lightfoot (updated in 2010 it is current, used on Amazon its less than $7, and its only...

Welcome to the Bible Versions section of the BB, Brad! You have obviously been thinking about this subject; you asked good questions. You will likely hear many opinions. My advise would be to look into some good books on the topic; I don't have a list with me.

Actually, my OP was intended to discuss when it may or/may not be appropriate to translate the (Greek) article as the definite article "the" in English. It has since shifted (which is fine by me) to an emphasis on the indefinite article (mostly as a result of discussing the JW rendering of John...

Then by this rule (which says nothing about 'first person'), "a God" should indicate that this particular God is merely one unspecified member out of a entire class (of Gods). Is that the OT idea being conveyed below and then repeated in the NT? God here is speaking about Himself --Exodus 6:7...

First, thomas15 did not qualify his posted statements about the definite article with 'first person'; neither was his example in first person. Second, 'first person' notwithstanding, the examples of English translation I gave do seem to imply that God is "a God" among others. What would a...

Here are just two (one OT, one NT); quotes from God and Jesus, no less (KJV) -- Jeremiah 23:23 [Am] I a God at hand, saith the LORD, and not a God afar off? Luke 20:38 For he is not a God of the dead, but of the living: for all live unto him.

How then do you explain the two dozen or more times the English Bible (KJV) refers to the one true God as "a God"?

I. There is at least one variant pair under consideration in this verse. The difference in English is between "from God" (NA/UBS reading παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ) and "with God" (TR reading παρὰ τῷ θεῷ). II. The NLT has this note -- * Some manuscripts read For the word of God will never fail. III. You...

and [there were] among them two hundred --------------- singing men and singing women. and ------------------ they had two hundred forty and five singing men and singing women. Their horses [were] seven hundred thirty and six; their mules, two hundred forty and five; Their horses, ------- seven...

I guess you would disagree with Wuest (page 15 of The Practical Use of the Greek New Testament) -- The definite article in Greek is the Greek index-finger pointing out individual identity. It frequently does more than that. It marks contrast. It makes the word with which it is used stand out...